ATI RN
health assessment test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A 47-year-old woman who is a recent immigrant to Canada is being seen at the clinic today for her uncontrolled diabetes. The nurse knows that the patient lives with her husband and a large extended family. The nurse concludes that part of the patient's inability to maintain and comply with her diet and diabetic regime is the foods that this patient eats. This conclusion is an example of:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: culturalism. The nurse's conclusion that the patient's inability to maintain her diet and diabetic regime is due to the foods she eats reflects culturalism. Culturalism refers to the belief that a person's behaviors and beliefs are solely determined by their culture. In this case, the nurse is attributing the patient's struggles solely to her cultural background without considering other factors. A: Cultural sensitivity is about being aware and respectful of different cultures, but it does not involve making assumptions based on culture alone. B: Cultural safety is about creating a safe and respectful environment for individuals from different cultures, but it does not involve making assumptions about behavior solely based on culture. C: Cultural perspective involves understanding different cultural viewpoints, but it does not involve making assumptions about behavior solely based on culture. In summary, the nurse's conclusion is an example of culturalism as it oversimplifies the patient's situation by attributing her struggles solely to her cultural background.
Question 2 of 9
Which is an inappropriate item in planning care for a severely neutropenic client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Transfuse neutrophils. Neutrophil transfusion is not a standard treatment for neutropenia as neutrophils do not survive well outside the body. For the other choices: B: Excluding raw vegetables is correct to prevent infection. C: Avoiding rectal suppositories is correct to prevent mucosal injury. D: Prohibiting vases of fresh flowers is correct to prevent exposure to fungal spores. So, transfusing neutrophils is inappropriate as it is not a standard treatment for neutropenia.
Question 3 of 9
What should be the first intervention for a client suspected of having a stroke?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct first intervention for a client suspected of having a stroke is to perform a CT scan (Choice B). This is because a CT scan can quickly identify the type of stroke (ischemic or hemorrhagic) and guide treatment decisions. Monitoring neurological status (Choice A) can be important but does not provide a definitive diagnosis. Administering fibrinolytics (Choice C) should only be done after confirming the type of stroke to avoid complications. Performing an MRI (Choice D) is more time-consuming and may not be feasible in the acute setting where quick intervention is crucial. Therefore, a CT scan is the most appropriate initial intervention for a suspected stroke.
Question 4 of 9
What is the first intervention when a client develops symptoms of shock?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer oxygen. Oxygen administration is the first intervention for shock as it helps improve oxygenation to vital organs. Lack of oxygen can worsen shock. Administering IV fluids (choice B) could be the second step to improve perfusion. Monitoring respiratory rate (choice C) is important but not the first intervention. Administering pain medication (choice D) is not a priority in managing shock.
Question 5 of 9
Acyclovir is the drug of choice for which condition?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Acyclovir is a nucleoside analog antiviral drug that is specifically effective against herpes simplex virus (HSV) types 1 and 2, as well as varicella-zoster virus (VZV). The drug works by inhibiting viral DNA synthesis. HSV and VZV are both members of the herpes virus family, and acyclovir is most commonly prescribed for infections caused by these viruses. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Choice A (HIV) is incorrect because acyclovir is not effective against HIV. Choice C (CMV) is incorrect because acyclovir is less effective against cytomegalovirus (CMV) compared to HSV and VZV. Choice D (influenza A viruses) is incorrect because acyclovir is not indicated for the treatment of influenza viruses.
Question 6 of 9
What is the most appropriate action for a client with a history of asthma who is experiencing wheezing?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer albuterol. Albuterol is a bronchodilator that helps open the airways, relieving wheezing in asthma patients. It is the first-line treatment for acute asthma exacerbations. Antihistamines (B) do not treat asthma symptoms. Monitoring for infection (C) is important but not the immediate action for wheezing. Epinephrine (D) is used for severe allergic reactions, not routine asthma management.
Question 7 of 9
Which client must avoid foods high in potassium?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A client with renal disease must avoid foods high in potassium to prevent hyperkalemia, as the kidneys are unable to properly filter and excrete potassium. Foods high in potassium can lead to dangerous levels of potassium in the blood, which can be life-threatening for individuals with renal disease. Choice A is incorrect because a client receiving diuretic therapy may actually need to increase their potassium intake due to the potassium-wasting effects of diuretics. Choice B is incorrect as having an ileostomy does not necessarily affect potassium levels. Choice C is incorrect because clients with metabolic alkalosis may actually benefit from consuming foods high in potassium to help correct the acid-base imbalance.
Question 8 of 9
What is the most appropriate action when a client with suspected meningitis presents with a positive Brudzinski sign?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, perform a lumbar puncture. A positive Brudzinski sign indicates meningeal irritation, a hallmark of meningitis. A lumbar puncture is the gold standard for diagnosing meningitis by analyzing cerebrospinal fluid. Placing the client on their back without proper diagnosis or treatment delays could lead to serious complications. Option B is incorrect as antibiotics should be given after confirming the diagnosis. Option C is partially correct but does not address the need for a definitive diagnostic test. Option A is incorrect as pain medication alone does not address the underlying cause of meningitis.
Question 9 of 9
Which condition places a client at risk for elevated ammonia levels?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Lupus. Lupus can affect the kidneys, leading to renal impairment. Renal impairment can decrease the body's ability to excrete ammonia, resulting in elevated levels. Renal failure (choice A) can also lead to elevated ammonia levels, but lupus specifically contributes to renal issues. Cirrhosis (choice B) primarily affects the liver, not kidneys. Psoriasis (choice C) is a skin condition and does not directly impact ammonia levels.