A 47-year-old male patient consulted a dentist about difficult mouth opening (lockjaw or trismus). The patient has a history of a stab wound of the lower extremity. What infection can be manifested by these symptoms?

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Question 1 of 9

A 47-year-old male patient consulted a dentist about difficult mouth opening (lockjaw or trismus). The patient has a history of a stab wound of the lower extremity. What infection can be manifested by these symptoms?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tetanus. Tetanus is caused by the bacterium Clostridium tetani, commonly found in soil, dust, and animal feces. The patient's history of a stab wound increases the risk of tetanus infection as the bacterium can enter the body through the wound. Tetanus infection can lead to symptoms such as lockjaw or trismus, which are characterized by muscle stiffness and difficulty opening the mouth. This is due to the neurotoxin produced by Clostridium tetani affecting the muscles. Summary of incorrect choices: B: Brucellosis is a bacterial infection transmitted from animals to humans through consumption of unpasteurized dairy products. It does not typically manifest with symptoms of lockjaw. C: Whooping cough (Pertussis) is a respiratory infection caused by Bordetella pertussis bacteria. It presents with severe coughing fits but does not cause lockjaw. D: Anaerobic wound infection

Question 2 of 9

A 40-year-old man developed skin redness and an swelling in the neck area, where eventually a small abscess appeared. The section the focus is dense and yellow-green colored. In the purulent masses there are white granules. Histologically there are fungal druses, plasma and xanthome cells, and macrophages detected. Specify the most correct etiological name of this pathological process?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Actinomycosis. This is a chronic bacterial infection caused by Actinomyces species. In this case, the description of dense yellow-green colored focus, white granules in purulent masses, and presence of fungal druses, plasma cells, xanthome cells, and macrophages all match the characteristics of actinomycosis. Actinomycosis typically presents with abscess formation containing sulfur granules, which are yellowish and granular. The other choices (B: Furuncle, C: Carbuncle, D: Syphilis) do not fit the clinical and histological features described in the question, making them incorrect options.

Question 3 of 9

A healthy man is in a region with high risk of catching malaria. What drug should be administered for individual chemoprophylaxis of malaria?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chingamin (also known as Chloroquine). Chingamin is the drug of choice for chemoprophylaxis of malaria in regions with high risk. It is effective against Plasmodium falciparum, the most common malaria parasite. Chingamin is well-tolerated, affordable, and has a long track record of use. Sulfalen (Choice B) is not commonly used for malaria prophylaxis. Tetracycline (Choice C) is not recommended for malaria prophylaxis due to poor efficacy and resistance development. Metronidazole (Choice D) is not effective against malaria parasites.

Question 4 of 9

Detection of galactomannan and free mannan is used for diagnosing:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Aspergillosis and candidiasis. Galactomannan is a polysaccharide found in Aspergillus cell walls and is detected in patients with invasive aspergillosis. Free mannan is a polysaccharide found in Candida cell walls and is detected in patients with candidiasis. Therefore, detection of galactomannan and free mannan is specific for diagnosing Aspergillosis and candidiasis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as HIV infection, syphilis, and leptospirosis do not involve the detection of galactomannan or free mannan for diagnosis.

Question 5 of 9

Tinea capitis is a fungal infection of the:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: scalp. Tinea capitis is a fungal infection that specifically affects the scalp. This infection is caused by dermatophytes, which thrive in warm and moist environments. It typically presents with symptoms such as scaling, itching, and hair loss on the scalp. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because tinea pedis (athlete's foot) affects the feet, oral thrush is a fungal infection of the mouth, and tinea manuum affects the hands. By process of elimination and understanding the specific characteristics of tinea capitis, we can determine that the scalp is the correct location for this fungal infection.

Question 6 of 9

What is a common characteristic of spore-forming bacteria?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Resistance to heat and dehydration. Spore-forming bacteria form spores as a survival mechanism in harsh conditions. These spores are highly resistant to heat and dehydration, allowing the bacteria to withstand extreme environments. This characteristic is essential for their long-term survival and ability to persist in unfavorable conditions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because not all spore-forming bacteria produce toxins, have flagella, or are capable of photosynthesis. These characteristics are not exclusive to spore-forming bacteria and do not define them as a group.

Question 7 of 9

The process of bacterial conjugation involves:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Direct transfer of DNA between two bacterial cells. In bacterial conjugation, genetic material is transferred directly from one bacterial cell to another through a conjugative pilus. This process involves physical contact between the cells, followed by the transfer of plasmid DNA or chromosomal DNA. This mechanism allows for the exchange of genetic information between bacteria, leading to genetic diversity. Explanation of why other choices are incorrect: A: DNA transfer via bacteriophage - Bacteriophage is a virus that infects bacteria and transfers its genetic material, but this is not the mechanism involved in bacterial conjugation. B: Uptake of naked DNA from the environment - This process is known as transformation, where bacteria take up free DNA from the environment, but it is not specific to bacterial conjugation. D: Binary fission - Binary fission is a form of asexual reproduction in bacteria where a single cell divides into two identical cells, and it is not related to the process

Question 8 of 9

A patient with acute food poisoning had fecal cultures grown on Endo agar, resulting in colorless colonies. What microorganism is most likely responsible?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Endo agar is a selective and differential media commonly used to isolate gram-negative bacteria. Step 2: Colorless colonies on Endo agar indicate the absence of lactose fermentation. Step 3: Salmonella is a gram-negative bacterium that does not ferment lactose, leading to colorless colonies on Endo agar. Step 4: Therefore, the correct answer is A: Salmonella. Summary: B: Escherichia coli ferments lactose, producing pink colonies on Endo agar. C: Staphylococcus is a gram-positive bacterium and would not grow on Endo agar. D: Shigella is a gram-negative bacterium but ferments lactose, resulting in pink colonies on Endo agar.

Question 9 of 9

Which of the following bacteria can cause meningitis?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, "All of the above." Neisseria meningitidis, Haemophilus influenzae, and Streptococcus pneumoniae are all bacteria known to cause meningitis. Neisseria meningitidis is a common cause of bacterial meningitis in young adults, Haemophilus influenzae type b is a common cause in children, and Streptococcus pneumoniae is a leading cause in adults and the elderly. Therefore, all three bacteria can potentially cause meningitis depending on the age group and other factors. The other choices are incorrect because each of the bacteria listed can cause meningitis, so selecting only one of them would be incorrect.

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