A 47-year-old male patient consulted a dentist about difficult mouth opening (lockjaw or trismus). The patient has a history of a stab wound of the lower extremity. What infection can be manifested by these symptoms?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tetanus. Tetanus is caused by the bacterium Clostridium tetani, commonly found in soil, dust, and animal feces. The patient's history of a stab wound increases the risk of tetanus infection as the bacterium can enter the body through the wound. Tetanus infection can lead to symptoms such as lockjaw or trismus, which are characterized by muscle stiffness and difficulty opening the mouth. This is due to the neurotoxin produced by Clostridium tetani affecting the muscles. Summary of incorrect choices: B: Brucellosis is a bacterial infection transmitted from animals to humans through consumption of unpasteurized dairy products. It does not typically manifest with symptoms of lockjaw. C: Whooping cough (Pertussis) is a respiratory infection caused by Bordetella pertussis bacteria. It presents with severe coughing fits but does not cause lockjaw. D: Anaerobic wound infection

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Streptococcus pneumoniae. This bacterium is the classic causative agent of croupous pneumonia due to its ability to infect the lungs and cause inflammation. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a common pathogen known for causing pneumonia in both adults and children. It is characterized by the presence of a capsule that helps it evade the host immune system. Choice A, Chlamydia pneumoniae, is not the correct answer as it is more commonly associated with atypical pneumonia. Choice C, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, is also associated with atypical pneumonia and not croupous pneumonia. Choice D, Staphylococcus aureus, can cause pneumonia, but it is not the classic causative agent of croupous pneumonia.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gram-negative stain. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a gram-negative bacterium, as indicated by the bluish-green pus color. This bacterium has an outer membrane that retains the crystal violet stain, making it appear pink/red after the counterstain with safranin in Gram staining. The other choices are incorrect because Pseudomonas aeruginosa does not typically form spores (B), has a rod-shaped morphology rather than a coccal form (C), and does not exhibit cell pairing (D).

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Two-layer. In gram-positive bacteria, the cell envelope consists of two layers: the thick peptidoglycan layer and the cytoplasmic membrane. The peptidoglycan layer is much thicker compared to gram-negative bacteria, providing structural support and protection. The cytoplasmic membrane is located beneath the peptidoglycan layer and serves as a barrier between the cytoplasm and the external environment. The other choices are incorrect because gram-positive bacteria do have a cell envelope, it is composed of two layers, not three layers, and it is not just a single layer. Choice D is incorrect as it states that there is no cell envelope in gram-positive bacteria, which is not true.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Protein A is a virulence factor specific to Staphylococcus aureus. This protein binds to the Fc region of immunoglobulins, inhibiting opsonization and phagocytosis. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Coagulase negative staphylococcus (choice A) does not produce Protein A. Micrococcus (choice C) is a different genus and does not possess Protein A. Choice D is incorrect because Protein A is indeed found in Staphylococcus aureus.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Humoral immunity. Humoral immunity involves the production of antibodies by B cells that can bind to antigens on viruses, leading to their agglutination. This process prevents the spread of the virus in the body. Passive immunity (A) involves receiving pre-formed antibodies, not the production of antibodies. Cell-mediated immunity (C) involves the activation of T cells, not the direct agglutination of viruses. Non-specific immunity (D) refers to general defense mechanisms like inflammation and fever, not targeted agglutination of viruses.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: Shigella dysenteriae produces Shiga toxin, which inhibits protein synthesis by inactivating the 60S ribosomal subunit. This disrupts the translation process, leading to cell death. Escherichia coli (choice B) does not produce a toxin that inhibits protein synthesis. Clostridium tetani (choice C) produces tetanospasmin, which affects the nervous system. Staphylococcus aureus (choice D) produces toxins that cause food poisoning but do not inhibit protein synthesis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nystatin. Nystatin is specifically used to treat intestinal candidiasis because it targets and eliminates the Candida species responsible for the infection. It is not absorbed systemically, acting only locally in the gastrointestinal tract. Griseofulvin (B) is mainly used to treat fungal skin infections, not intestinal candidiasis. Undecyne (C) is an antifungal agent used for skin infections, not for intestinal candidiasis. Amphotericin B (D) is a potent antifungal agent used for systemic fungal infections, not specifically for intestinal candidiasis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pyogenes. The presence of Gram-positive cocci in chains suggests a streptococcal infection. Beta-hemolysis indicates the production of a hemolysin that lyses red blood cells, a characteristic of Streptococcus pyogenes. This bacterium is known to cause strep throat and can present with fever and sore throat. Summary: - B: Streptococcus pneumoniae is a common cause of pneumonia but typically appears as lancet-shaped cocci, not in chains. - C: Staphylococcus aureus is a gram-positive cocci in clusters, not chains, and is not typically beta-hemolytic. - D: Enterococcus faecalis is a gram-positive cocci that are part of the normal gut flora and are not typically beta-hemolytic or found in chains.