A 47-year-old male patient consulted a dentist about difficult mouth opening (lockjaw or trismus). The patient has a history of a stab wound of the lower extremity. What infection can be manifested by these symptoms?

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Question 1 of 9

A 47-year-old male patient consulted a dentist about difficult mouth opening (lockjaw or trismus). The patient has a history of a stab wound of the lower extremity. What infection can be manifested by these symptoms?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tetanus. Tetanus is caused by the bacterium Clostridium tetani, commonly found in soil, dust, and animal feces. The patient's history of a stab wound increases the risk of tetanus infection as the bacterium can enter the body through the wound. Tetanus infection can lead to symptoms such as lockjaw or trismus, which are characterized by muscle stiffness and difficulty opening the mouth. This is due to the neurotoxin produced by Clostridium tetani affecting the muscles. Summary of incorrect choices: B: Brucellosis is a bacterial infection transmitted from animals to humans through consumption of unpasteurized dairy products. It does not typically manifest with symptoms of lockjaw. C: Whooping cough (Pertussis) is a respiratory infection caused by Bordetella pertussis bacteria. It presents with severe coughing fits but does not cause lockjaw. D: Anaerobic wound infection

Question 2 of 9

The classic causative agent of croupous pneumonia is:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Streptococcus pneumoniae. This bacterium is the classic causative agent of croupous pneumonia due to its ability to infect the lungs and cause inflammation. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a common pathogen known for causing pneumonia in both adults and children. It is characterized by the presence of a capsule that helps it evade the host immune system. Choice A, Chlamydia pneumoniae, is not the correct answer as it is more commonly associated with atypical pneumonia. Choice C, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, is also associated with atypical pneumonia and not croupous pneumonia. Choice D, Staphylococcus aureus, can cause pneumonia, but it is not the classic causative agent of croupous pneumonia.

Question 3 of 9

Specify the most commonly used parameters for autoclaving sterilization:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because it specifies the commonly used parameters for autoclaving sterilization: 1.0 atm pressure, 120º C temperature, and 15-20 minutes duration. This combination ensures effective sterilization by providing the necessary heat and pressure for killing microorganisms. Rationale: 1. Pressure of 1.0 atm: Standard atmospheric pressure commonly used in autoclaving. 2. Temperature of 120º C: Optimal temperature for sterilization without causing damage to heat-sensitive materials. 3. Duration of 15-20 minutes: Time required for heat and pressure to penetrate and kill microorganisms effectively. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Incorrect temperature and duration, too high and long, may damage materials. C: Incorrect pressure and temperature, higher pressure and temperature not commonly used. D: Incorrect temperature, too high, can damage materials, and duration is longer than necessary.

Question 4 of 9

Which of the following can be used for specific prophylaxis of pertussis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pertussis toxoid. This is because pertussis toxoid is a component of the pertussis vaccine, which provides specific prophylaxis against pertussis by stimulating the immune system to produce antibodies against the bacteria causing the disease. Choice B, killed vaccine, is incorrect as it does not specify pertussis toxoid. Choice C, wide-spectrum antibiotics, is incorrect as antibiotics are used for treatment, not prophylaxis. Choice D, None of the above, is incorrect as pertussis toxoid is specifically used for prophylaxis of pertussis.

Question 5 of 9

Following treatment with a highly efficient anti-tuberculosis drug a 48-yearold female developed optic nerve neuritis, memory impairment, cramps. Which of these anti-TB drugs had the patient taken?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step 1: The symptoms of optic nerve neuritis, memory impairment, and cramps are indicative of ethambutol toxicity. Step 2: Ethambutol is known to cause optic nerve toxicity leading to neuritis, as well as CNS toxicity causing memory impairment. Step 3: Ethambutol can also lead to peripheral neuropathy manifesting as cramps. Step 4: Isoniazid is associated with peripheral neuropathy and hepatotoxicity but not with optic nerve neuritis or memory impairment. Step 5: PASA is not commonly used for tuberculosis treatment and does not cause the described symptoms. Step 6: Rifampicin is known for hepatotoxicity and flu-like symptoms, but not specifically for optic nerve neuritis, memory impairment, or cramps. Summary: Ethambutol is the correct answer due to its known side effects of optic nerve toxicity, CNS toxicity, and peripheral neuropathy, which align with the presented symptoms. Ison

Question 6 of 9

Which one is an example of an immunomodulator:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why B (Gamma Interferon) is the correct answer: 1. Gamma Interferon is a type of immunomodulator that helps regulate the immune response. 2. It activates macrophages and enhances the immune system's ability to fight infections. 3. Rifampin is an antibiotic, not an immunomodulator. 4. Hexacima and Pentaxim are combination vaccines, not immunomodulators. In summary, Gamma Interferon is the correct answer as it directly influences the immune response, while the other choices are not immunomodulators.

Question 7 of 9

Enzymatic reactions can be expressed in which of the following chemical notations?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: E + S = P. This notation represents the interaction between an enzyme (E) and a substrate (S) resulting in a product (P). Enzymes facilitate chemical reactions by binding to substrates and converting them into products. Choice A is incorrect because it does not include the enzyme in the reaction. Choice B is incorrect as it involves two substrates binding to the enzyme, not a substrate converting to a product. Choice D is incorrect as it shows two substrates reacting to form a product without involvement of an enzyme. Thus, choice C accurately represents the process of enzymatic reactions involving enzymes, substrates, and products.

Question 8 of 9

In which of the following cases of immune reactions a large lattice is formed?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because in immune reactions, a large lattice is formed when antigens and antibodies are in optimal proportion. This optimal ratio allows for the formation of a strong antigen-antibody complex, leading to the aggregation of immune complexes into large lattice structures. When antibodies are in excess (choice A), there may not be enough antigens to form a stable lattice. Similarly, when antigens are in excess (choice C), there may be insufficient antibodies to form a strong lattice. Choice D is incorrect because the optimal proportion of antigens and antibodies is crucial for the formation of large lattices in immune reactions.

Question 9 of 9

Which is NOT an antigen-presenting cell (or APC)?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Polymorphonuclear leukocyte. APCs are specialized immune cells that present antigens to T cells. B cells and dendritic cells are classic examples of APCs, as they can efficiently present antigens. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes, such as neutrophils, are not considered traditional APCs because they are primarily involved in phagocytosis and killing of pathogens rather than antigen presentation. Therefore, they do not play a significant role in initiating adaptive immune responses. The incorrect choices are A (B cell) and C (Dendritic cell) because they are both well-known antigen-presenting cells in the immune system. Choice D (All of the above) is incorrect because B cells and dendritic cells are indeed antigen-presenting cells.

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