ATI RN
Physical Assessment Nursing Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A 47-year-old contractor presents for evaluation of neck pain, which has been intermittent for several years. He normally takes over-the-counter medications to ease the pain, but this time they haven't worked as well, and he still has discomfort. He recently wallpapered the entire second floor in his house, which caused him great discomfort. The pain resolved with rest. He denies fever, chills, rash, upper respiratory symptoms, trauma, or injury to the neck. Based on this description, what is the most likely pathologic process?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most likely pathologic process in this scenario is degenerative. The history provided includes chronic intermittent neck pain that worsened after a specific activity (wallpapering) but resolved with rest. The patient's age (47 years old) is also suggestive of degenerative changes in the spine. Additionally, the use of over-the-counter medications to manage the pain points towards a chronic condition such as degenerative changes in the cervical spine, possibly cervical spondylosis or osteoarthritis. There is no mention of any infectious symptoms, trauma, or neoplastic features in the presentation.
Question 2 of 9
A 25-year-old accountant presents to your clinic, complaining of intermittent lower right- sided chest pain for several days. He describes it as knifelike and states it only lasts for 3 to 5 seconds, taking his breath away. He states he feels like he has to breathe shallowly to keep it from recurring. The only thing that makes it better is lying quietly on his right side. It is much worse when he takes a deep breath. He has taken some Tylenol and put a heating pad on his side but neither has helped. He remembers that 2 weeks ago he had an upper respiratory infection with a severe hacking cough. He denies any recent trauma. His past medical history is unremarkable. His parents and siblings are in good health. He has recently married, and his wife has a baby due in 2 months. He denies any smoking or illegal drug use. He drinks two to three beers once a month. He states that he eats a healthy diet and runs regularly, but not since his recent illness. He denies any cardiac, gastrointestinal, or musculoskeletal symptoms. On examination he is lying on his right side but appears quite comfortable. His temperature, blood pressure, pulse, and respirations are unremarkable. His chest has normal breath sounds on auscultation. Percussion of the chest is unremarkable. During palpation the ribs are nontender. What disorder of the chest best describes his symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The patient's symptoms of intermittent, sharp chest pain with breathing that worsens with deep breaths and is relieved by lying on the right side are suggestive of pleural pain. Pleuritic chest pain is often described as sharp or stabbing and occurs when the parietal pleura, the outer lining of the lungs, becomes inflamed or irritated. In this case, the patient's history of an upper respiratory infection with a severe hacking cough two weeks ago suggests that the pleural pain may be related to pleurisy or pleuritis, which can occur as a complication of respiratory infections.
Question 3 of 9
Abby is a newly married woman who is unable to have intercourse because of vaginismus. Which of the following is true?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Option D, "Psychosocial reasons may cause this condition," is true. Vaginismus is a condition characterized by involuntary contractions of the muscles around the vaginal entrance, which can make sexual intercourse painful, difficult, or impossible. In many cases, this condition is linked with psychological factors such as anxiety, fear, past trauma, or relationship issues. These psychological factors can lead to the muscles tightening up in anticipation of pain or discomfort during intercourse, hence causing vaginismus. With appropriate psychological interventions like counseling, therapy, or relaxation techniques, individuals experiencing vaginismus can often overcome the condition and engage in pain-free intercourse.
Question 4 of 9
A patient complains of shortness of breath for the past few days. On examination, you note late inspiratory crackles in the lower third of the chest that were not present a week ago. What is the most likely explanation for these?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The presence of late inspiratory crackles in the lower third of the chest that were not present previously is suggestive of pulmonary edema, a common finding in patients with heart failure. Heart failure can lead to fluid accumulation in the lungs, causing crackles on auscultation. These crackles are typically heard at the lung bases and can be more prominent during inspiration. Other clinical features of heart failure may include orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, lower extremity edema, and fatigue. Therefore, in this case, the most likely explanation for the patient's shortness of breath with late inspiratory crackles is heart failure.
Question 5 of 9
You are beginning the examination of a patient. All of the following areas are important to observe as part of the General Survey except:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Blood pressure is not typically included in the initial assessment during the General Survey. The General Survey primarily focuses on obtaining an overall impression of the patient's health status and any noticeable cues such as level of consciousness, signs of distress, and appearance including dress, grooming, and personal hygiene. While blood pressure is an important vital sign to assess during a comprehensive examination, it is usually measured later in the assessment process and not part of the initial general observation.
Question 6 of 9
A 22-year-old unemployed roofer presents to your clinic, complaining of pain in his testicle and penis. He states the pain began last night and has steadily become worse. He states it hurts when he urinates and he has not attempted intercourse since the pain began. He has tried Tylenol and ibuprofen without improvement. He denies any fever or night sweats. His past medical history is unremarkable. He has had four previous sexual partners and has had a new partner for the last month. She is on oral contraceptives so he has not used condoms. His parents are both in good health. On examination you see a young man lying on his side. He appears mildly ill. His temperature is 2 and his blood pressure, respirations, and pulse are normal. On visualization of the penis he is circumcised, with no lesions or discharge from the meatus. Visualization of the scrotal skin appears unremarkable. Palpation of the testes shows severe tenderness at the superior pole of the normal-sized left testicle. He also has tenderness when you palpate the structures superior to the testicle through the scrotal wall. The right testicle is unremarkable. An examining finger is placed through each inguinal ring without bulges being noted with bearing down. His prostate examination is unremarkable. Urine analysis shows white blood cells and bacteria. What diagnosis of the male genitalia is most likely in this case?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The history and physical examination findings in this case are most consistent with acute epididymitis. Acute epididymitis is characterized by inflammation and infection of the epididymis, which is a tubular structure located behind the testicle that stores and carries sperm. Common symptoms of acute epididymitis include pain and swelling in the scrotum, testicular pain, pain with urination, and sometimes penile discharge. The patient's symptoms of testicular and penile pain, as well as pain with urination, are classic for epididymitis. The severe tenderness at the superior pole of the left testicle and tenderness on palpation of structures superior to the testicle through the scrotal wall further support this diagnosis. In addition, the presence of white blood cells and bacteria on urine analysis is consistent with an infectious process like epididymitis.
Question 7 of 9
A high school football player injured his wrist in a game. He is tender between the two tendons at the base of the thumb. Which of the following should be considered?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: DeQuervain's tenosynovitis is a condition that involves inflammation of the tendons located at the base of the thumb. The tendons affected are the abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis. It typically causes pain and tenderness at the base of the thumb, which can worsen with certain movements of the wrist and thumb. In the case of the high school football player, his tenderness between the two tendons at the base of the thumb is suggestive of DeQuervain's tenosynovitis. It is a common overuse injury in athletes, especially those involved in activities that require repetitive hand and wrist movements, such as gripping a football during play. Treatment usually involves rest, splinting, ice, anti-inflammatory medications, and physical therapy.
Question 8 of 9
Asymmetric BPs are seen in which of the following conditions?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Asymmetric blood pressures (BPs) refer to a significant difference in blood pressures between the two arms. This is commonly seen in conditions like congenital narrowing of the aorta, also known as coarctation of the aorta. In this condition, there is a localized narrowing of the aorta, leading to higher blood pressure in the upper extremities compared to the lower extremities. This results in a significant asymmetry in blood pressure readings between the arms. It is crucial to identify this sign as it can have important diagnostic and treatment implications.
Question 9 of 9
Mr. Garcia comes to your office for a rash on his chest associated with a burning pain. Even a light touch causes this burning sensation to worsen. On examination, you note a rash with small blisters (vesicles) on a background of reddened skin. The rash overlies an entire rib on his right side. What type of pain is this?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The description of the rash on Mr. Garcia's chest associated with a burning pain that worsens with light touch indicates neuropathic pain. Neuropathic pain arises from damage or dysfunction of the nervous system, leading to abnormal pain sensations such as burning, tingling, or shooting pain. In this case, the presence of small blisters (vesicles) on reddened skin overlying an entire rib on one side suggests involvement of nerve fibers, characteristic of neuropathic pain. It is important to differentiate neuropathic pain from other types of pain (such as nociceptive/somatic, idiopathic, or psychogenic) as management strategies differ based on the underlying mechanisms of pain perception.