ATI RN
Central Nervous System Stimulants and Related Drugs NCLEX Questions Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 46-year-old male patient has Cushing's syndrome that is due to the presence of an adrenal tumor. Which of the following drugs would be expected to reduce the signs and symptoms of this man's disease?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 2 of 5
When a 12-year-old child is prescribed methylphenidate, which is most important for the nurse to monitor?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Height and weight. Monitoring height and weight is crucial when a child is prescribed methylphenidate as it is a stimulant medication that can potentially affect growth and appetite. By regularly tracking these parameters, nurses can assess the medication's impact on the child's growth and nutritional status. Monitoring temperature (A) is not directly related to methylphenidate use. While monitoring respirations (B) is important, it is not the most critical aspect when administering methylphenidate. Monitoring intake and output (C) is important for overall hydration status but is not as specific to assessing the effects of methylphenidate on growth and nutrition.
Question 3 of 5
It is important for the nurse teaching the patient regarding secobarbital to include which information about the drug?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer C: The nurse should include information about secobarbital causing a hangover effect because it is an important side effect to be aware of. This effect may lead to drowsiness, dizziness, and impaired cognitive function the morning after taking the drug, impacting the patient's ability to function normally. Educating the patient about this potential consequence is crucial for promoting safe and effective medication use. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Incorrect because secobarbital is an intermediate-acting drug, not short-acting. B: Incorrect because rapid eye movement rebound is not a common side effect of secobarbital. D: Incorrect because secobarbital is not a long-acting drug and is not typically associated with dependence.
Question 4 of 5
A patient taking lorazepam asks the nurse how this drug works. The nurse should respond by stating that it is a benzodiazepine that acts by which mechanism?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Depressing the central nervous system. Lorazepam, a benzodiazepine, works by enhancing the inhibitory effects of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) neurotransmitter in the brain. This results in decreased neuronal excitability, leading to sedative, anxiolytic, and muscle relaxant effects. Option A is similar but lacks specificity about the neurotransmitter involved. Option B is incorrect as lorazepam does not typically lead to loss of consciousness at therapeutic doses. Option D is incorrect as lorazepam primarily affects the central nervous system and does not specifically target motor and sensory activities.
Question 5 of 5
A patient received spinal anesthesia. Which is most important for the nurse to monitor?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypotension and headaches. When a patient receives spinal anesthesia, monitoring for hypotension is crucial due to the vasodilation effect of the anesthesia, which can lead to a drop in blood pressure. Headaches can also occur as a side effect of spinal anesthesia. Monitoring these two factors is essential in preventing complications such as inadequate perfusion or post-dural puncture headaches. A: Loss of consciousness is not a priority as spinal anesthesia does not typically affect consciousness. B: Hangover effects and dependence are not typical side effects of spinal anesthesia. D: Excitement or delirium are not common effects of spinal anesthesia.