A 45-year-old woman presents with heavy menstrual bleeding and iron deficiency anemia. On pelvic examination, the uterus is enlarged, and multiple irregularly shaped masses are palpated. Which condition is most likely to be responsible for these findings?

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Question 1 of 9

A 45-year-old woman presents with heavy menstrual bleeding and iron deficiency anemia. On pelvic examination, the uterus is enlarged, and multiple irregularly shaped masses are palpated. Which condition is most likely to be responsible for these findings?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The clinical presentation of heavy menstrual bleeding, iron deficiency anemia, an enlarged uterus, and irregularly shaped masses palpated on pelvic examination is most indicative of leiomyomas, also known as uterine fibroids. Leiomyomas are benign smooth muscle tumors that commonly occur in women of reproductive age. They can lead to heavy menstrual bleeding and iron deficiency anemia due to their size and location within the uterus. On pelvic examination, leiomyomas can be felt as irregularly shaped masses within the uterine wall. This presentation is classic for leiomyomas and distinguishes them from conditions such as endometrial polyps, endometrial hyperplasia, and adenomyosis.

Question 2 of 9

A postpartum client presents with persistent, severe abdominal pain, distention, and absent bowel sounds. Which nursing action is most appropriate?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate nursing action in this situation is to notify the healthcare provider immediately. The symptoms the postpartum client is experiencing - persistent, severe abdominal pain, distention, and absent bowel sounds - are concerning and could indicate a serious underlying issue such as bowel obstruction or other complications. Prompt communication with the healthcare provider is crucial to ensure the client receives the necessary assessment, intervention, and treatment. Encouraging ambulation, providing a heating pad, or administering a laxative are not appropriate actions in this case without first consulting with the healthcare provider due to the severity and potential complexity of the client's symptoms.

Question 3 of 9

Which of the following substances has abnormal values EARLY in the course of multiple myeloma (MM)?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In the early stages of multiple myeloma (MM), abnormal values are often seen in the levels of immunoglobulins. This is due to the abnormal proliferation of plasma cells in the bone marrow, leading to overproduction of monoclonal immunoglobulins (M proteins). These abnormal immunoglobulins can be detected in blood tests and are a key diagnostic feature of MM. Changes in red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets are not typically early indicators of multiple myeloma.

Question 4 of 9

A patient admitted to the ICU develops delirium characterized by acute onset confusion and agitation. What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to manage the patient's delirium?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The healthcare team should prioritize implementing environmental modifications to promote orientation in a patient with delirium. Delirium is a state of acute confusion and agitation that can be triggered by various factors such as medications, infections, or metabolic disturbances. Environmental modifications involve creating a calm, quiet, and well-lit environment for the patient. Promoting proper orientation through the use of clocks, calendars, and familiar objects can help reduce confusion and improve the patient's understanding of their surroundings. These interventions are non-pharmacological and aim to address the underlying causes of delirium while minimizing the need for additional medications that may have potential side effects. Antipsychotic medications and benzodiazepines should be used judiciously and under close supervision due to the risk of adverse effects in older adults and critically ill patients. Referring the patient to a psychiatrist may be considered if the delirium is complex or if there are underlying psychiatric issues contributing to the presentation.

Question 5 of 9

The nurse explains to the mother that the uterus will return to its pre pregnancy state in _____ weeks.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The nurse explains to the mother that the uterus will return to its pre-pregnancy state in about four to six weeks after giving birth. This timeframe is an average estimation of how long it takes for the uterus to shrink back to its normal size and position after going through the process of supporting and nourishing a developing fetus. The process of the uterus returning to its pre-pregnancy state is known as involution, where the uterus undergoes contractions to shed the excess lining and reduce in size. This period is crucial for the body to heal and recover from the changes that occurred during pregnancy and childbirth.

Question 6 of 9

A postpartum client who delivered via cesarean section expresses concerns about breastfeeding difficulties and worries about insufficient milk supply. What nursing intervention should be prioritized to address the client's concerns?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct nursing intervention to prioritize in this situation is providing education on techniques to improve latch and milk transfer. Cesarean section deliveries can sometimes pose challenges for breastfeeding initiation, but with proper education and support, many women can successfully breastfeed following a C-section. By teaching the client techniques to improve latch and milk transfer, the nurse can help address the client's concerns about breastfeeding difficulties and worries about insufficient milk supply. This proactive approach empowers the client to overcome breastfeeding challenges and increase their confidence in their ability to breastfeed successfully. Referring the client to a lactation consultant for specialized support may also be beneficial, but providing initial education on latch and milk transfer is crucial in this early postpartum period. Recommending formula feedings or discouraging breastfeeding may not be appropriate interventions, as they can affect the establishment of breastfeeding and undermine the client's breastfeeding goals.

Question 7 of 9

A patient presents with a painless, slowly enlarging mass in the right neck, just above the clavicle. Fine-needle aspiration cytology reveals clusters of polygonal cells with clear cytoplasm and centrally located nuclei. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The described presentation of a painless, slowly enlarging mass in the right neck just above the clavicle, along with the cytology findings of clusters of polygonal cells with clear cytoplasm and centrally located nuclei, is classic for parathyroid adenoma. Parathyroid adenomas are benign tumors arising from one of the parathyroid glands, which are typically located in the neck region close to the thyroid gland. The clear cytoplasm and centrally located nuclei of the cells are characteristic histological features of parathyroid adenomas. This condition can often lead to hyperparathyroidism, characterized by increased levels of parathyroid hormone (PTH) and hypercalcemia. Treatment involves surgical removal of the adenoma.

Question 8 of 9

A pregnant woman presents with severe lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. On examination, cervical motion tenderness and unilateral adnexal tenderness are noted, along with an adnexal mass on the affected side. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The clinical presentation of severe lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding in a pregnant woman, along with cervical motion tenderness, unilateral adnexal tenderness, and an adnexal mass on the affected side, is highly concerning for an ectopic pregnancy. Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, most commonly in the fallopian tube. The presence of an adnexal mass and tenderness on one side is indicative of potential tubal involvement and can mimic symptoms of pelvic inflammatory disease. Prompt evaluation and management are crucial in ectopic pregnancy to prevent life-threatening complications associated with rupture of the fallopian tube.

Question 9 of 9

A patient presents with unilateral nasal congestion, facial pain, and purulent nasal discharge. Upon examination, tenderness is noted over the affected sinus. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The patient's symptoms of unilateral nasal congestion, facial pain, and purulent nasal discharge with tenderness over the affected sinus are suggestive of acute sinusitis. Acute sinusitis is typically caused by a viral or bacterial infection leading to inflammation and swelling of the sinus mucosa, resulting in the characteristic symptoms described. The tenderness over the affected sinus indicates inflammation in that area. Allergic rhinitis typically presents with bilateral nasal congestion, clear nasal discharge, and itching, rather than facial pain and purulent discharge. Nasal polyps are associated with chronic conditions and usually lead to more gradual onset of symptoms. A deviated nasal septum may contribute to chronic sinus issues but typically does not present with acute symptoms of infection like purulent discharge and facial pain.

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