ATI RN
Psychiatric Emergency Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 45 year old woman is seen in the Emergency Department after a fall with a Colles fracture. Which feature best demonstrates that she lacks capacity?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, option D, "Unable to explain what the operation involves," best demonstrates that the woman lacks capacity. Capacity refers to an individual's ability to understand information relevant to a decision, appreciate the consequences of that decision, and communicate their decision. In this case, the woman's inability to explain what the operation involves indicates a lack of understanding and ability to make an informed decision about her treatment. Option A, "Carer involved in her care," does not necessarily indicate a lack of capacity. Involving a carer in her care could be a positive measure to ensure support and communication but does not directly assess her individual capacity. Option B, "Severe learning disability," is not the best choice as having a learning disability does not automatically mean someone lacks capacity. Capacity is determined on an individual basis, considering the person's ability to understand and make decisions. Option C, "Severe pain," may impact the woman's ability to communicate or make decisions temporarily, but it does not directly assess her capacity. Pain management is crucial in this situation, but it is not a definitive indicator of lacking capacity. Educationally, understanding capacity assessment is vital in psychiatric emergencies and healthcare settings to ensure that patients' rights are upheld and appropriate decisions are made in their best interest. It is essential to evaluate each individual's capacity carefully, considering various factors beyond just the presenting condition.
Question 2 of 5
A 72 year old man has 4 days of painless haematuria and takes warfarin. Which is the most appropriate initial investigation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a psychiatric emergency exam scenario where a 72-year-old man presents with painless hematuria and is on warfarin, the most appropriate initial investigation would be A) CT scan of kidneys, ureter, and bladder. This choice is correct because it allows for a detailed visualization of the urinary tract, helping identify potential causes of hematuria such as renal tumors or stones, which are crucial to address promptly in the context of a psychiatric emergency. Option B) Prostate specific antigen level is incorrect as it is primarily used in evaluating prostate conditions like cancer, which may not be the primary concern in this case. Option C) Ultrasound of abdomen may not provide the necessary detailed information about the urinary tract compared to a CT scan. Option D) Urodynamic studies are more invasive and are typically not the initial investigation for hematuria. Educationally, understanding the rationale behind selecting the appropriate initial investigation in a psychiatric emergency setting is vital for healthcare providers to make timely and accurate decisions to ensure patient safety and well-being. By choosing the CT scan, providers can efficiently identify potential causes of hematuria, guiding further management and treatment plans effectively.
Question 3 of 5
A 26 year old woman has taken a significant overdose of antidepressant and antipsychotic medication. Which is the most appropriate next step?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate next step in this scenario is option C, which is to compulsorily detain the patient for further assessment. When a person has ingested a significant overdose of medication, especially antidepressants and antipsychotics which can be potentially lethal in overdose, there is a high risk of harm to themselves. Compulsory detention allows healthcare professionals to closely monitor the patient, provide necessary medical interventions, and ensure their safety. Option A, arranging for home leave, is not appropriate in this situation as the patient is at high risk of harm and requires immediate medical attention. Allowing the patient to leave against medical advice, as in option B, is also not advisable as it could lead to serious consequences such as worsening of the overdose effects or even death. Referring the patient to a crisis and home treatment team, as in option D, may not provide the level of monitoring and intervention needed in this acute overdose situation. Compulsory detention ensures that the patient receives the urgent care and support required for their safety and well-being. In an educational context, it is crucial for healthcare providers to understand the gravity of psychiatric emergencies like overdoses and the importance of prompt and appropriate intervention to prevent harm to the patient. Understanding the rationale behind each option helps in developing critical thinking skills and making informed decisions in real-life clinical scenarios.
Question 4 of 5
A patient says, 'Home is sweet, sweet in diabetes; diabetes urine has sweet, sweet is hell.' What is the symptom?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer to this question is B) Flight of ideas. Flight of ideas is a symptom commonly seen in manic episodes of bipolar disorder where thoughts rapidly move from one subject to another, often with loose connections between them. In the given statement, the patient's thoughts are disjointed, jumping from "Home is sweet" to "diabetes urine has sweet" to "sweet is hell," indicating a rapid and disorganized flow of ideas. Option A) Derailment refers to a sudden shift in thought topics that are completely unrelated, which is not as evident in the patient's statement. Option C) Neologism involves creating new words or phrases that are meaningless to others, which is not present here. Option D) Loosening of association refers to a more severe form of thought disorder where there is an absence of logical connections between thoughts. Educationally, understanding symptoms of psychiatric emergencies like flight of ideas is crucial for healthcare providers, especially in emergency situations where quick and accurate assessment is needed to provide appropriate care. Recognizing these symptoms can help in making a timely diagnosis and initiating proper interventions to ensure the safety and well-being of the patient.
Question 5 of 5
A 20-year-old male presents with laughing one minute and crying the next without any clear stimulus. Which of the following best describes the symptom?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is C) Labile affect. Labile affect refers to rapid and unpredictable changes in emotions, such as laughing one minute and crying the next without an apparent cause. This symptom is commonly seen in psychiatric emergencies and can indicate underlying mood instability or neurological conditions. Option A) Incongruent affect does not fully capture the rapid and fluctuating nature of the emotional changes described in the case. Incongruent affect typically refers to emotions that are not in line with the situation or context. Option B) Elation specifically denotes a state of intense happiness or joy, which does not encompass the wide range of emotions exhibited by the individual in the case. Option D) Flat affect is characterized by a lack of emotional expression and would not align with the alternating laughter and crying displayed by the 20-year-old male. Educationally, understanding psychiatric emergencies and associated symptoms like labile affect is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially in settings like emergency departments or mental health facilities. Recognizing and correctly identifying these symptoms can guide appropriate interventions and ensure the individual receives timely and effective care. By differentiating between terms like labile affect, incongruent affect, elation, and flat affect, healthcare providers can make informed clinical decisions to support patients in crisis.