Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assessing the patient's level of pain. In this situation, the patient's tachycardia, hypertension, and increased respiratory rate could be indicative of pain. By assessing the patient's pain level, the nurse can address any discomfort the patient may be experiencing, which could be contributing to these physiological responses. Summary of other choices: B: Decreasing the SIMV rate on the ventilator - This is not the priority intervention as the patient's symptoms are more likely related to pain rather than the ventilator settings. C: Providing sedation as ordered - Sedation is not the priority in this case as the patient has been tolerating the ventilator well without requiring sedation. D: Suctioning the patient again - Since the airway has been recently cleared, suctioning again is not necessary at this point and would not address the underlying cause of the patient's symptoms.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Remove the patient's rings first. This is crucial to prevent constriction and swelling due to potential allergic reactions or inflammation from bee stings. Removing rings allows for proper circulation and prevents complications like compartment syndrome. Ice packs (B) can be applied after removing the rings to reduce swelling. Calamine lotion (C) can provide relief for itching but is not as urgent as ring removal. Diphenhydramine (D) can be given later for systemic allergic reactions but should not take precedence over removing the rings.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: notify the provider immediately. The absence of bruit, thrill, and palpable distal pulses in a new arteriovenous fistula suggests potential complications like thrombosis or stenosis, requiring urgent intervention. Notifying the provider promptly allows for timely assessment and appropriate management to prevent further complications. Summary: A: Reassessing the patient in an hour may delay necessary intervention for a potentially serious issue. B: Raising the arm above the level of the patient’s heart does not address the underlying problem and may not improve the situation. D: Applying warm packs to the fistula site is not the appropriate intervention for the absence of bruit and thrill and may not address the underlying cause.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ensuring that deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis is initiated. When a patient requires neuromuscular blockade for increased intracranial pressure, they are likely immobile, which increases the risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Initiating DVT prophylaxis, such as compression stockings or anticoagulant therapy, helps prevent blood clot formation. Choice A is incorrect because sedatives can mask signs of neurologic deterioration in this patient population. Choice B is incorrect as it promotes activities that may increase intracranial pressure and could be harmful. Choice D, while important for overall patient care, is not directly related to the specific nursing interventions required for a patient receiving neuromuscular blockade for increased intracranial pressure.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice B is correct: 1. Midazolam is a benzodiazepine used for sedation and anxiolysis. 2. It acts quickly and has a short duration of action, suitable for acute agitation. 3. Lorazepam (also a benzodiazepine) is in the same drug class, ensuring compatibility. 4. Lorazepam is specifically ordered for this patient, indicating its appropriateness. 5. Administering midazolam addresses the patient's agitation efficiently and safely. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: A: Fentanyl is an opioid analgesic, not ideal for managing agitation. C: Increasing morphine infusion can exacerbate sedation or respiratory depression. D: Paralytic agents are used for neuromuscular blockade, not agitation control.