A 45-year-old patient complains of fever up to 40oC, general weakness, headache and spasmodic contraction of muscles in the region of a shin wound. The patient got injured five days ago when tilling soil and didn't seek medical attention. What kind of wound infection can be suspected?

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Question 1 of 9

A 45-year-old patient complains of fever up to 40oC, general weakness, headache and spasmodic contraction of muscles in the region of a shin wound. The patient got injured five days ago when tilling soil and didn't seek medical attention. What kind of wound infection can be suspected?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: The patient's symptoms align with tetanus infection, such as muscle spasms and fever. Step 2: Tetanus is caused by Clostridium tetani bacteria found in soil. Step 3: The wound from tilling soil provides an entry point for the bacteria. Step 4: Delayed seeking medical attention increases the risk of tetanus development. Step 5: Tetanus toxin affects the nervous system, leading to muscle stiffness and spasms. Summary: Choice A is correct due to symptom alignment, bacterial source, wound type, delayed treatment, and specific neurological effects. Choices B, C, and D lack these specific connections to the given scenario.

Question 2 of 9

A child entering the school for the first time was given Mantoux test in order to determine if there was a need for revaccination. The reaction was negative. What is the meaning of this test result?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Availability of cell-mediated immunity to tuberculosis. A negative Mantoux test indicates the presence of an immune response to the TB bacteria, as the test measures the body's delayed hypersensitivity reaction to TB antigens. This means the child has been exposed to TB in the past or has been vaccinated, resulting in the development of cell-mediated immunity against TB. Incorrect choices: A: No cell-mediated immunity to tuberculosis - This is incorrect as a negative Mantoux test actually indicates the presence of cell-mediated immunity. C: No antibodies to the tuberculosis bacteria - Mantoux test measures cell-mediated immunity, not antibody response. D: No anti-toxic immunity to tuberculosis - Mantoux test does not assess anti-toxic immunity, it specifically measures cell-mediated immunity.

Question 3 of 9

Disinfection is:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Disinfection is the process of destroying the vegetative forms of microorganisms, but their spores may survive. This is why choice C is correct. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Disinfection does not necessarily target spore forms exclusively. B: While disinfection targets vegetative forms, it does not always eliminate spore forms. D: Disinfection is not primarily used for determining the effect of physical agents on microorganisms.

Question 4 of 9

A scolex is a structure found in:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ancylostoma duodenale. A scolex is a structure found in tapeworms, not in the other options which are roundworms. Ancylostoma duodenale is a species of hookworm, a type of intestinal parasite that has a distinct scolex with hook-like mouthparts for attachment to the host's intestinal wall. Enterobius vermicularis is a pinworm, Necator americanus is a hookworm species without a scolex, and Ascaris lumbricoides is a roundworm with a cylindrical body lacking a scolex. Therefore, the presence of a scolex specifically points to Ancylostoma duodenale.

Question 5 of 9

Which are the most suitable materials for isolation of polio viruses

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because polio viruses are primarily found in the gastrointestinal tract and respiratory secretions. Feces, nasopharyngeal swabs, and cerebrospinal fluid are the most suitable materials for isolating polio viruses due to their presence in these body fluids. Feces contain the virus shed from the intestines, nasopharyngeal swabs collect respiratory secretions where the virus may be present, and cerebrospinal fluid is important for detecting the virus in cases of neurological complications. Choices A and B include irrelevant body fluids that are not typically associated with polio virus transmission. Option C is too limited as the virus can also be present in respiratory secretions and cerebrospinal fluid, not just feces.

Question 6 of 9

Which of the following bacteria is responsible for causing peptic ulcers?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Helicobacter pylori. This bacterium is known to be the primary cause of peptic ulcers by colonizing the stomach lining and causing inflammation. It produces urease enzyme to neutralize stomach acid and has a flagellum for mobility. Escherichia coli (A) is mainly associated with foodborne illnesses. Streptococcus pyogenes (C) causes strep throat and skin infections. Mycobacterium tuberculosis (D) causes tuberculosis, a respiratory infection. Therefore, Helicobacter pylori is the correct choice for peptic ulcers based on its unique characteristics and pathogenicity.

Question 7 of 9

A 43-year-old cattle farm worker is brought to the surgeon with fever, malaise, and inflamed lesions on his hands and arms. He reports that about 2 weeks before his presentation at the hospital he noticed small, painless, pruritic papules that quickly enlarged and developed a central vesicle. The vesicles developed into erosion and left painless necrotic ulcers with black, depressed eschar. Gram's staining of the ulcer reveals gram-positive spore-forming bacilli. Which of the following diseases is the most likely cause of these findings?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anthrax. The clinical presentation of painless necrotic ulcers with black eschar, along with the gram-positive spore-forming bacilli seen on Gram's staining, is classic for cutaneous anthrax. Anthrax is caused by Bacillus anthracis, which produces spores and can lead to skin lesions in individuals working with animals or animal products. Choice B, Chickenpox, typically presents with vesicular rash all over the body. Choice C, Syphilis, is caused by Treponema pallidum and does not present with the characteristic eschar seen in the patient. Choice D, Tularemia, caused by Francisella tularensis, presents with ulceroglandular lesions but lacks the black eschar characteristic of anthrax.

Question 8 of 9

An enzyme process of producing two identical copies of DNA from one original DNA molecule is called:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Replication. In DNA replication, the original DNA molecule is unwound and each strand serves as a template to synthesize a new complementary strand. This results in two identical copies of the original DNA molecule. Translation (A) is the process of synthesizing proteins from mRNA. Transcription (B) is the process of synthesizing mRNA from DNA. Cell division (D) is the process of a cell dividing into two daughter cells, not specifically producing identical DNA copies. Therefore, replication is the correct answer as it specifically refers to the process of copying DNA to produce two identical copies.

Question 9 of 9

Genus Rickettsia representatives are characterized by:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Intracellular parasitism. Genus Rickettsia representatives are known for their ability to live and replicate inside the host's cells, making them obligate intracellular parasites. This characteristic distinguishes them from other bacteria. A: Gram-positive cell wall is incorrect because Rickettsia have a gram-negative cell wall. B: High resistance to external environment factors is incorrect because Rickettsia are sensitive to environmental conditions and require specific host cells for survival. D: None of the above is incorrect because Rickettsia do exhibit the characteristic of intracellular parasitism.

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