A 45-year-old patient complains of fever up to 40oC, general weakness, headache and spasmodic contraction of muscles in the region of a shin wound. The patient got injured five days ago when tilling soil and didn't seek medical attention. What kind of wound infection can be suspected?

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Question 1 of 5

A 45-year-old patient complains of fever up to 40oC, general weakness, headache and spasmodic contraction of muscles in the region of a shin wound. The patient got injured five days ago when tilling soil and didn't seek medical attention. What kind of wound infection can be suspected?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: The patient's symptoms align with tetanus infection, such as muscle spasms and fever. Step 2: Tetanus is caused by Clostridium tetani bacteria found in soil. Step 3: The wound from tilling soil provides an entry point for the bacteria. Step 4: Delayed seeking medical attention increases the risk of tetanus development. Step 5: Tetanus toxin affects the nervous system, leading to muscle stiffness and spasms. Summary: Choice A is correct due to symptom alignment, bacterial source, wound type, delayed treatment, and specific neurological effects. Choices B, C, and D lack these specific connections to the given scenario.

Question 2 of 5

For serological diagnostics of the whooping cough it was made large-scale reaction with parapertussis and pertussis diagnosticums. At the bottom of the test-tubes with diagnosticum of Bordetella parapertussis grain-like sediment formed. What antibodies have this reaction revealed?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Rationale: 1. The grain-like sediment indicates a precipitation reaction. 2. Precipitins are antibodies that cause precipitation reactions. 3. In serological diagnostics, precipitation reactions are used to detect specific antibodies. 4. Therefore, the reaction revealed in this scenario is due to the presence of precipitins. Summary: A: Bacteriolysins - These antibodies cause bacterial lysis, not precipitation. C: Antitoxins - These antibodies neutralize toxins, not involved in precipitation reactions. D: Opsonins - These antibodies enhance phagocytosis, not related to precipitation reactions.

Question 3 of 5

A 23-year-old man developed a perforation in his hard palate, a dense formation with clear margins was detected in this area. After a surgery, microscopy of excised formation shows there a large focus of caseous necrosis surrounded with a granulation tissue with endovasculitis and a cellular infiltration consisting of lymphocytes and epithelioid cells with predominance of plasma cells. What is the most likely disease in this case?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tuberculosis. The case describes a man with a perforation in the hard palate and features of caseous necrosis with granulation tissue, endovasculitis, and a cellular infiltration mainly of lymphocytes, epithelioid cells, and plasma cells. These findings are classic for tuberculosis infection, commonly seen in extrapulmonary sites like the oral cavity. Syphilis (choice A) typically presents with a painless ulcer and different histopathological features. Leprosy (choice C) presents with granulomas containing foamy macrophages. Scleroma (choice D) is caused by Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis and presents with chronic granulomatous inflammation.

Question 4 of 5

A patient ill with amebiasis was prescribed a certain drug. The use of alcohol together with this drug is contraindicated because the drug inhibits metabolism of ethyl alcohol. What drug is it?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Metronidazole is known to inhibit aldehyde dehydrogenase, an enzyme involved in alcohol metabolism. 2. Inhibition of this enzyme leads to accumulation of acetaldehyde, causing unpleasant symptoms when alcohol is consumed. 3. This reaction is known as the disulfiram-like reaction. 4. Reserpine, Clonidine, and Diazepam do not have this specific mechanism of action. Summary: - Option A (Metronidazole) is correct due to its inhibition of alcohol metabolism. - Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not exhibit this interaction with alcohol metabolism.

Question 5 of 5

A gynaecologist was examining a patient and revealed symptoms of genital tract inflammation. A smear from vagina contains pyriform protozoa with a spine, flagella at their front; there is also an undulating membrane. What disease can be suspected?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urogenital trichomoniasis. The presence of pyriform protozoa with a spine, flagella at their front, and an undulating membrane in a vaginal smear indicates Trichomonas vaginalis, the causative agent of urogenital trichomoniasis. Trichomonas vaginalis is sexually transmitted and causes vaginal discharge, itching, and inflammation. Lambliasis (choice B) is caused by Giardia lamblia, which is not characterized by the described features. Intestinal trichomoniasis (choice C) is caused by a different species, Tritrichomonas foetus, and presents with diarrhea in cattle. Toxoplasmosis (choice D) is caused by Toxoplasma gondii and typically affects the brain and other organs, not the genital tract.

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