A 45-year-old patient complains of body temperature rise up to 40oC, general weakness, headache, painfulness and spastic muscle contractions around the wound in the shin. He received this wound 5 days ago when working in his garden. He requested no medical care back then. What wound infection can be suspected?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tetanus. The patient's symptoms of muscle contractions, fever, and wound history suggest tetanus, caused by Clostridium tetani bacteria commonly found in soil. The spastic muscle contractions around the wound are classic for tetanus due to the neurotoxin produced by the bacteria. General weakness and headache are also common symptoms. B: Anthrax is unlikely as it presents with different symptoms such as skin lesions, respiratory symptoms, and gastrointestinal symptoms. C: Erysipelas is characterized by red, swollen patches on the skin, not consistent with the symptoms described. D: Gram-positive is not a specific diagnosis but a broad category of bacteria. Tetanus is caused by Clostridium tetani, which is a Gram-positive bacterium, but this choice does not provide a specific infection diagnosis.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: cell wall. Lysozyme is an enzyme that targets the cell wall of bacteria by breaking down the peptidoglycan layer, leading to bacterial cell lysis. This action disrupts the structural integrity of the bacteria, ultimately causing their death. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because lysozyme does not target the cytoplasm, nucleus, or capsule of bacteria. The primary function of lysozyme is to act on the cell wall, making option B the correct answer in this context.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: Metronidazole is the drug of choice for systemic amebiasis due to its high efficacy against Entamoeba histolytica. It has good tissue penetration and can treat intestinal, liver, and lung involvement. Quiniofone (A) has limited use and is not recommended for amebiasis. Enteroseptol (B) is not effective against systemic amebiasis. Tetracycline (D) is not the first-line treatment for amebiasis and has limited efficacy against Entamoeba histolytica.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rotavirus. Rotavirus is a member of the Reoviridae family known for causing diarrhea in infants. It infects the lining of the small intestine, leading to symptoms like vomiting and watery diarrhea. Rationale: 1. Rotavirus is specifically known for causing diarrhea in infants. 2. Reoviruses are a family of viruses to which rotavirus belongs. 3. Congovirus (B), Hepadnavirus (C), and Picornavirus (D) do not belong to the Reoviridae family and are not associated with causing diarrhea in infants. In summary, choice A is correct as it aligns with the characteristics of the given family of viruses and their associated symptoms, while choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not fit these criteria.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: chronic. A persistent infection that is not lytic but productive is characterized by ongoing viral replication without cell lysis. This type of infection is referred to as chronic, as it persists over an extended period. Latent infections involve periods of dormancy with intermittent reactivation. Slow infections typically have a prolonged incubation period before causing symptoms. Transforming infections lead to permanent alterations in host cell behavior. The key distinction for this question is the continuous viral replication without cell destruction, which aligns with the definition of a chronic infection.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Shiga anatoxin. This is because the Salk and Sabin vaccines are actually for polio, not chemical vaccines. HPV vaccine is a biological vaccine, not a chemical one. Shiga anatoxin is a chemical vaccine used against Shigella bacteria, making it the only correct choice for chemical vaccines in this question.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because filoviruses, such as Ebola virus, require investigation in specifically equipped laboratories with high biological protection due to their high pathogenicity and risk of transmission. This is essential for ensuring the safety of researchers and preventing outbreaks. A: This is incorrect as filoviruses are not the most common cause of gastroenteritis; they primarily cause severe hemorrhagic fevers. C: Filoviruses are not widespread; they are typically confined to specific regions during outbreaks. D: Mass immunization is not used for filoviruses as there is no established vaccine for general prophylaxis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The primary target of beta-lactam antibiotics is cell wall synthesis. These antibiotics inhibit enzymes called penicillin-binding proteins, which are essential for building the bacterial cell wall. By disrupting cell wall synthesis, beta-lactam antibiotics weaken the cell wall, leading to bacterial cell lysis and death. Protein synthesis (Choice A), DNA replication (Choice B), and folic acid synthesis (Choice D) are not directly targeted by beta-lactam antibiotics, making them incorrect choices.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The most probable diagnosis is D: Tularemia. Tularemia is a bacterial infection caused by Francisella tularensis. The symptoms described align with tularemia, such as pain in axillary area, fever, shaky gait, coated tongue, frequent pulse, painful lymphatic nodules, and erythematous skin over nodules. The key features pointing towards tularemia are the presence of lymphadenitis in the axillary area and the erythematous, glistering skin over the nodules, which are characteristic of ulceroglandular tularemia. Bubonic plague (A) presents with painful, swollen lymph nodes called buboes but typically lacks the erythematous skin findings. Acute purulent lymphadenitis (B) usually presents with pus-filled lymph nodes but does not typically cause shaky gait or coated tongue. Lymphogranulomatosis (C) is a term for Hodgkin's lymphoma, which does not