A 45-year-old patient complains of body temperature rise up to 40oC, general weakness, headache, painfulness and spastic muscle contractions around the wound in the shin. He received this wound 5 days ago when working in his garden. He requested no medical care back then. What wound infection can be suspected?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tetanus. The patient's symptoms of muscle contractions, fever, and wound history suggest tetanus, caused by Clostridium tetani bacteria commonly found in soil. The spastic muscle contractions around the wound are classic for tetanus due to the neurotoxin produced by the bacteria. General weakness and headache are also common symptoms. B: Anthrax is unlikely as it presents with different symptoms such as skin lesions, respiratory symptoms, and gastrointestinal symptoms. C: Erysipelas is characterized by red, swollen patches on the skin, not consistent with the symptoms described. D: Gram-positive is not a specific diagnosis but a broad category of bacteria. Tetanus is caused by Clostridium tetani, which is a Gram-positive bacterium, but this choice does not provide a specific infection diagnosis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Botulism. Botulism is caused by the toxin produced by Clostridium botulinum bacteria found in improperly preserved or canned foods. The symptoms described align with botulism, such as difficulty swallowing and breathing due to muscle paralysis. The tennis racket appearance seen under microscopy corresponds to the characteristic appearance of Clostridium botulinum spores. The other choices can be ruled out based on the clinical presentation and microscopy findings. Cholera typically presents with severe watery diarrhea, Nontyphoidal Salmonella infection with fever and gastrointestinal symptoms, and Typhoid fever with high fever and abdominal pain. Therefore, the most likely diagnosis in this case is botulism.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Benzylpenicillin sodium salt, also known as penicillin G, works by blocking the synthesis of peptidoglycan in the microbial cell wall. Peptidoglycan is crucial for the structural integrity of bacterial cell walls. By inhibiting its synthesis, penicillin disrupts the cell wall formation, leading to cell lysis and bacterial death. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because penicillin does not target cytoplasm proteins, thiol enzymes, or RNA synthesis. Penicillin's primary mode of action is specifically related to interfering with bacterial cell wall synthesis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: Metronidazole is the drug of choice for systemic amebiasis due to its high efficacy against Entamoeba histolytica. It has good tissue penetration and can treat intestinal, liver, and lung involvement. Quiniofone (A) has limited use and is not recommended for amebiasis. Enteroseptol (B) is not effective against systemic amebiasis. Tetracycline (D) is not the first-line treatment for amebiasis and has limited efficacy against Entamoeba histolytica.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trichomonas vaginalis. 1. Symptoms of urogenital inflammation match Trichomonas vaginalis infection. 2. Description matches Trichomonas vaginalis characteristics: pear-shaped, pointed spike, big nucleus, undulating membrane. 3. Trichomonas hominis and buccalis do not typically infect urogenital tracts. 4. Trypanosoma gambiense causes African trypanosomiasis, not urogenital infections.