A 45-year-old mother of two children is seen at the clinic for complaints of “losing my urine when I sneeze.” The nurse documents that she is experiencing:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Stress incontinence. This type of incontinence is characterized by leakage of urine during activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure, such as sneezing, coughing, or laughing. In this case, the woman is experiencing urine loss specifically when she sneezes, which aligns with the definition of stress incontinence. Other choices are incorrect because urinary frequency (choice A) refers to a frequent need to urinate, enuresis (choice B) is involuntary urination during sleep, and urge incontinence (choice D) is the sudden, strong need to urinate followed by involuntary leakage.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fluconazole. Fluconazole is the drug of choice for treating and preventing *cryptococcal meningitis in AIDS patients due to its excellent CNS penetration and efficacy. It is preferred over Amphotericin B due to its better safety profile and tolerability. Flucytosine is not used as monotherapy and is often combined with other antifungals. Ketoconazole is not recommended for cryptococcal meningitis due to poor CNS penetration.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vancomycin. Red man syndrome is a hypersensitivity reaction caused by rapid infusion of vancomycin. Vancomycin infusion releases histamine, leading to flushing, rash, and hypotension. Clindamycin (B), Cefoperazone (C), and Piperacillin (D) are not associated with red man syndrome. Clindamycin can cause pseudomembranous colitis, Cefoperazone can cause bleeding disorders, and Piperacillin can cause hypersensitivity reactions, but not red man syndrome.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Rationale: Terbinafine is the correct answer as it inhibits fungal squalene epoxidase, disrupting ergosterol synthesis in the fungal cell membrane. This drug is specifically effective against onychomycosis in diabetic patients due to its fungicidal action and good nail penetration. Griseofulvin (A) targets microtubules, not squalene epoxidase. Itraconazole (C) inhibits ergosterol synthesis via a different mechanism. Amphotericin B (D) disrupts fungal cell membrane by binding to ergosterol, not squalene epoxidase.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Diethyl carbamazine is the correct answer for the treatment of filariasis as it is the drug of choice due to its effectiveness in killing microfilariae and adult worms. Diethyl carbamazine directly targets the parasites responsible for filariasis, leading to their death and eventual elimination from the body. Albendazole, Levamisole, and Piperazine are not commonly used for filariasis treatment and are more commonly used for other parasitic infections. Albendazole is more commonly used for helminthic infections, Levamisole for roundworm infections, and Piperazine for pinworm infections.