ATI RN
Pharmacology Across the Lifespan Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 45-year-old man with a history of depression presents to the emergency department with priapism. He has had an erection for the past 2 h, and it is extremely painful. He is given pseudoephedrine and the erection subsides. What medication is the most likely cause of his priapism?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is D) Trazodone. Trazodone is an antidepressant known to be associated with priapism, a rare but serious side effect. Priapism is characterized by a prolonged and painful erection unrelated to sexual stimulation. Trazodone, a serotonin modulator and stimulator, has been linked to this adverse effect due to its alpha-adrenergic blocking properties, which can lead to impaired regulation of blood flow in the penis. Option A) Bupropion is unlikely to cause priapism as it works through a different mechanism of action compared to trazodone. Bupropion is a norepinephrine-dopamine reuptake inhibitor and does not typically lead to priapism. Option B) Fluoxetine, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), is also an unlikely cause of priapism in this case. SSRIs are not commonly associated with priapism and are generally considered safer in terms of sexual side effects compared to trazodone. Option C) Maprotiline is a tetracyclic antidepressant with noradrenergic effects. While priapism is a potential side effect of maprotiline, it is less common than with trazodone. Educationally, understanding the side effect profiles of different antidepressants is crucial for healthcare providers to make informed decisions when prescribing medications, especially in patients with underlying conditions like depression. Recognizing the association between trazodone and priapism can help prevent and manage this serious adverse event promptly.
Question 2 of 5
A 7-year-old boy is brought to the ambulatory care clinic by his mother because of acting out in class and at home. In class, he often talks out of turn and does not stay focused on tasks. At home, his mother cannot get him to do his chores, and he never sits still. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this case, the most appropriate treatment for the 7-year-old boy displaying symptoms of hyperactivity, impulsivity, and inattention is option D) Methylphenidate, commonly used to treat attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) in children. Methylphenidate is a central nervous system stimulant that helps improve focus, impulse control, and hyperactivity. Option A) Clomipramine is a tricyclic antidepressant used for obsessive-compulsive disorder, not ADHD. Option B) Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used for depression and anxiety, not ADHD. Option C) Lithium is a mood stabilizer primarily used for bipolar disorder, not ADHD. Educationally, understanding the appropriate pharmacological treatment for ADHD across different age groups is crucial for healthcare providers working with pediatric populations. Recognizing the symptoms of ADHD and knowing the appropriate medications can significantly impact a child's academic, social, and emotional well-being. It is important to consider factors such as age, comorbidities, and potential side effects when selecting the most suitable treatment option for a child with ADHD.
Question 3 of 5
A 32-year-old man who traveled to Brazil 1 week ago presents to the emergency department with swelling of his right eye. He has decreased vision in his right eye because of the swelling. His left eye is unaffected. A peripheral blood smear shows the presence of a parasite. The patient does remember being warned of reduviid bugs and that their bites are painless. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate treatment for the patient is option C) Nifurtimox. This patient likely has Chagas disease, caused by the parasite Trypanosoma cruzi, transmitted by reduviid bugs in endemic regions like Brazil. Nifurtimox is the first-line treatment for acute and chronic Chagas disease due to its efficacy in killing the parasite. Option A) Chloroquine is used for malaria, not Chagas disease. Option B) Melarsoprol is used for African trypanosomiasis, not Chagas disease. Option D) Sodium stibogluconate is used for leishmaniasis, not Chagas disease. Educationally, understanding the appropriate treatment for specific parasitic infections is crucial for healthcare providers, especially those practicing in endemic regions. This case highlights the importance of considering travel history, symptomatology, and appropriate drug therapy in the management of parasitic infections, enhancing diagnostic and treatment skills in clinical practice.
Question 4 of 5
A 62-year-old man is being treated with cisplatin for small cell carcinoma of the lungs. The efficacy of cisplatin depends on interaction with which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cisplatin is a platinum-based chemotherapeutic agent that exerts its cytotoxic effect by binding to DNA (A), forming intrastrand and interstrand cross-links. This disrupts DNA replication and transcription, leading to apoptosis of rapidly dividing cancer cells like small cell lung carcinomDNA polymerase is indirectly affected, not directly targeteGrowth factor receptors are targeted by tyrosine kinase inhibitors, reverse transcriptase by antiretrovirals, and ribosomes (E) by antibiotics like tetracyclines—none apply to cisplatin’s mechanism.
Question 5 of 5
A 60-year-old woman comes to the physician because she recently was diagnosed with non-small cell lung carcinoma and she wants to discuss possible treatment options. She tells the physician that she is concerned about the possible adverse effects of chemotherapy. The physician says that serious toxicity caused by antineoplastic drugs is seen in the bone marrow. Which of the following best explains this finding?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Bone marrow toxicity (e.g., myelosuppression) from chemotherapy occurs because marrow cells divide rapidly (A), making them highly susceptible to drugs targeting cell division (e.g., alkylating agents, antimetabolites). Specific targets apply to some drugs (e.g., imatinib), not most. ‘Used to prevent’ is unclear, nucleated cells aren’t the sole target (red cells lack nuclei), vascularity (E) aids delivery but isn’t the reason, and lipid solubility (F) varies by drug.