A 45-year-old female with chronic asthma is prescribed fluticasone. Fluticasone works by:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Reducing inflammation in the airways. Fluticasone is a corticosteroid that works by reducing inflammation in the airways, which is a key feature of asthma pathophysiology. It inhibits the inflammatory response, decreases mucus production, and improves lung function. Choice A is incorrect because blocking leukotriene receptors is the mechanism of action of leukotriene receptor antagonists, not fluticasone. Choice B is incorrect as stimulating beta-2 receptors is the mechanism of action of beta-2 agonists like albuterol, not fluticasone. Choice D is incorrect because inhibiting the release of histamine from mast cells is the mechanism of antihistamines, not corticosteroids like fluticasone.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypertension. Albuterol is a bronchodilator that can potentially increase blood pressure. In patients with hypertension, this can lead to further elevation of blood pressure and potentially worsen the condition. Therefore, hypertension is a contraindication for albuterol inhalation therapy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect: A: Diabetes mellitus is not a contraindication for albuterol inhalation therapy. C: Hypotension is not a contraindication for albuterol inhalation therapy. D: Chronic bronchitis is not a contraindication for albuterol inhalation therapy.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic. Step 2: Thiazide diuretics work by inhibiting sodium reabsorption in the kidneys. Step 3: By blocking sodium reabsorption, hydrochlorothiazide increases water excretion, reducing blood volume and lowering blood pressure. Step 4: Therefore, the correct answer is A: Inhibiting sodium reabsorption in the kidneys. Summary: - Option B (Blocking calcium channels) is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide does not affect calcium channels. - Option C (Increasing the excretion of potassium) is incorrect as thiazide diuretics can cause hypokalemia by increasing potassium excretion. - Option D (Relaxing vascular smooth muscle) is incorrect as this is not the primary mechanism of action of hydrochlorothiazide.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step 1: Beta-blockers block the effects of adrenaline on beta receptors in the heart. Step 2: Adrenaline (epinephrine) binds to beta receptors in the heart, leading to increased heart rate and contractility. Step 3: By blocking beta receptors, beta-blockers reduce heart rate and contractility. Step 4: This reduces the workload on the heart, improves efficiency, and helps in managing heart failure. Summary: A: Incorrect. Beta-blockers actually decrease heart rate and contractility. B: Incorrect. Beta-blockers primarily affect heart function, not preload and afterload. D: Incorrect. Beta-blockers do not directly increase cardiac output; they improve heart function by reducing workload.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increasing serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain. Tramadol is a synthetic opioid analgesic that acts by binding to mu-opioid receptors and also inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine. This dual mechanism of action helps alleviate pain by enhancing the effects of these neurotransmitters in the brain. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because tramadol primarily affects serotonin and norepinephrine levels rather than blocking opioid receptors, inhibiting dopamine reuptake, or decreasing substance P in the spinal cord.