ATI RN
ADPIE Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A 45-year old female diabetic is displaying signs of irritability and irrational behavior during an office visit. The nurse observes visible tremors in the client’s hands. based on the client’s history and the nurse’s understanding of diabetes mellitus, the nurse interprets these findings to be signs of:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: hypoglycemia. In a diabetic patient, signs of irritability, irrational behavior, and visible tremors in the hands indicate low blood sugar levels, which is hypoglycemia. This is because the brain relies on glucose for energy, and when blood sugar levels drop too low, it can lead to neuroglycopenic symptoms such as confusion and tremors. Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect: A: hyperglycemia - High blood sugar levels typically present with symptoms such as frequent urination, increased thirst, and fatigue, not irritability and tremors. B: hyperglycemic hyperosmolar - This condition is characterized by extremely high blood sugar levels and severe dehydration, leading to symptoms such as extreme thirst and confusion, not irritability and tremors. C: diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) nonketosis (HHNK) - These conditions are associated with high blood sugar levels and metabolic disturbances,
Question 2 of 9
A patient’s chest x-ray examination indicates fluid in both lung bases. Which of the ff. signs or symptoms present during the nurse’s assessment most reflects these x-ray examination findings?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, bilateral crackles. Fluid in both lung bases on x-ray indicates pulmonary edema, causing crackles on auscultation. Fatigue (A) is a nonspecific symptom. Peripheral edema (B) is a sign of fluid retention in the extremities, not lungs. Jugular vein distention (D) indicates increased central venous pressure, which is not specific to lung fluid.
Question 3 of 9
Which diagnosis will the nurse document in a patient’s care plan that is NANDA-I approved?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute pain. The NANDA-I (North American Nursing Diagnosis Association International) approved diagnosis must meet specific criteria related to patient assessment data, defining characteristics, and related factors. Acute pain is a well-defined nursing diagnosis with specific defining characteristics and related factors, making it a suitable and approved option for inclusion in a patient's care plan. Sore throat, sleep apnea, and heart failure do not meet the criteria for a NANDA-I approved diagnosis as they lack the specificity and comprehensive assessment data required for a nursing diagnosis.
Question 4 of 9
While monitoring a client for the development of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), the nurse should take note of what assessment parameters?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Platelet count, prothrombin time, and partial thromboplastin time. These parameters are essential in monitoring DIC because platelet count reflects the risk of bleeding, while prolonged prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time indicate impaired clotting function, which is characteristic of DIC. Explanation for why other choices are incorrect: - Choice B: Blood glucose levels and WBC count are not specific indicators for DIC monitoring. - Choice C: Thrombin time, calcium levels, and potassium levels do not directly assess clotting abnormalities associated with DIC. - Choice D: While fibrinogen level is important in DIC, WBC count alone is not a specific indicator for monitoring DIC.
Question 5 of 9
After reviewing the database, the nurse discovers that the patient’s vital signs have not been recorded by the nursing assistive personnel (NAP). Which clinical decision should the nurse make? Administer scheduled medications assuming that the NAP would have reported
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Safety First - The nurse's priority is patient safety. Without vital signs, medication administration can be unsafe. Step 2: Accountability - The nurse must ensure accurate and timely vital signs recording before making clinical decisions. Step 3: Delegation - Asking the NAP to record vital signs aligns with their role and helps maintain a reliable record. Step 4: Proactive Approach - By having the NAP record vital signs, the nurse can make informed decisions based on accurate data. Summary: A: Incorrect - Proceeding with medications without vital signs can risk patient safety. B: Incorrect - Waiting to review vital signs later can delay necessary interventions. D: Incorrect - Omitting vital signs is negligent and compromises patient care.
Question 6 of 9
A client is undergoing a diagnostic work-up for suspected testicular cancer. When obtaining the client’s history, the nurse checks for known risk factors for this type of cancer. Testicular cancer has been linked to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Cryptorchidism. Cryptorchidism, also known as undescended testicle, is a known risk factor for testicular cancer as the testicle does not descend into the scrotum during fetal development, increasing the risk of cancer development. Testosterone therapy during childhood (A) and early onset of puberty (B) are not directly linked to testicular cancer. Sexually transmitted diseases (C) typically do not increase the risk of testicular cancer. Therefore, choice D is the most relevant risk factor for testicular cancer in this scenario.
Question 7 of 9
The following are warning signs of cancer. Which one is not?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, weight gain, as it is not typically considered a warning sign of cancer. Changes in bladder and bowel habits (A), indigestion or difficulty in swallowing (C), and a nagging cough or hoarseness (D) are commonly associated with various types of cancer. Weight gain is more commonly linked to factors such as diet, exercise, and hormonal imbalances rather than cancer. It is important to be vigilant about the other warning signs and seek medical attention if any of those symptoms persist.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following types of cells is the immune system’s shutoff mechanism?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Suppressor T cells. Suppressor T cells regulate the immune response by inhibiting the activity of other immune cells to prevent overreaction and maintain immune balance. They play a crucial role in preventing autoimmune diseases and excessive inflammation. Plasma cells (A) produce antibodies, Helper T cells (C) assist in activating other immune cells, and B lymphocytes (D) are involved in antibody production. Suppressor T cells specifically have the function of shutting down immune responses, making them the immune system’s shutoff mechanism.
Question 9 of 9
Compartment syndrome is a potential complication of elbow fractures that decreases circulation to local neuromuscular structures. The nurse monitors circulation on a casted elbow because irreversible damage can develop if compartment syndrome lasts for more than:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 24 hours. Compartment syndrome occurs when pressure within a closed muscle compartment increases, leading to decreased circulation and potential tissue damage. Monitoring is crucial as irreversible damage can occur if left untreated. The 6 Ps (pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesia, paralysis, pressure) are key indicators. Waiting for 48 hours (choice A) or 12 hours (choice C) is too long and can result in severe consequences. 2 hours (choice B) is too short a timeframe to assess for irreversible damage development, making 24 hours (choice D) the most appropriate timeframe for monitoring and intervention.