ATI RN
Jarvis Physical Examination and Health Assessment 9th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 45-year-old electrical engineer presents to your clinic, complaining of spots on his scrotum. He first noticed the spots several months ago, and they have gotten bigger. He denies any pain with urination or with sexual intercourse. He has had no fever, night sweats, weight gain, or weight loss. His past medical history consists of a vasectomy 10 years ago and mild obesity. He is on medication for hyperlipidemia. He denies any tobacco or illegal drug use and drinks alcohol socially. His mother has Alzheimer's disease and his father died of leukemia. On examination he appears relaxed and has unremarkable vital signs. On visualization of his penis, he is circumcised and has no lesions on his penis. Visualization of his scrotum shows three yellow nodules 2-3 millimeters in diameter. During palpation they are firm and nontender. What abnormality of the male genitalia is this most likely to be?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Epidermoid cysts. These cysts typically present as firm, non-tender nodules on the scrotum, consistent with the patient's presentation. The history of gradual growth without associated symptoms supports this diagnosis. Additionally, the lack of pain with urination or sexual intercourse rules out sexually transmitted infections like condylomata acuminata (choice A) and syphilitic chancre (choice B). Peyronie's disease (choice C) involves penile curvature and fibrous plaques, not scrotal nodules. In summary, the patient's presentation, physical examination findings, and absence of specific symptoms point towards epidermoid cysts as the most likely diagnosis.
Question 2 of 5
On abdominal examination she has active bowel sounds, is nontender in all quadrants, and has no hepatosplenomegaly. Inspection of the anus reveals inflammation on the posterior side with erythema. Digital rectal examination is painful for the patient, but no abnormalities are palpated. Anoscopic examination reveals no inflammation or bleeding. What is the anal disorder that best describes her symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: The patient's symptoms of painful digital rectal examination and inflammation on the posterior side of the anus with erythema are consistent with an anal fissure. The absence of palpable abnormalities and bleeding on anoscopic examination further support this diagnosis. Anal fissures are common and typically present with these symptoms due to a tear in the anal lining. Incorrect Choices: A: Anorectal fistula typically presents with discharge, recurrent abscesses, and may have palpable tracks. B: External hemorrhoids usually present with painless bleeding, swelling, and itching, not with the described symptoms. D: Anorectal cancer would typically present with more severe symptoms like rectal bleeding, changes in bowel habits, and weight loss, which are not described in this case.
Question 3 of 5
Which is a sign of benign prostatic hyperplasia?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Nocturia. Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a non-cancerous enlargement of the prostate gland, leading to urinary symptoms such as frequent urination at night (nocturia). This occurs due to the prostate pressing against the urethra, causing urinary flow issues. Weight loss (A) is not typically associated with BPH. Bone pain (B) is more indicative of conditions like prostate cancer or metastasis. Fever (C) is not a common symptom of BPH. Therefore, D is the most appropriate sign of BPH.
Question 4 of 5
A 33-year-old construction worker comes for evaluation and treatment of acute onset of low back pain. He notes that the pain is an aching located in the lumbosacral area. It has been present intermittently for several years; there is no known trauma or injury. He points to the left lower back. The pain does not radiate and there is no numbness or tingling in the legs or incontinence. He was moving furniture for a friend over the weekend. On physical examination, you note muscle spasm, with normal deep tendon reflexes and muscle strength. What is the most likely cause of this patient's low back pain?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mechanical low back pain. This is the most likely cause as the patient's pain is aching, located in the lumbosacral region, intermittent for years, with no radiation, numbness, tingling, or incontinence. The physical exam findings of muscle spasm, normal reflexes, and muscle strength support this diagnosis. Mechanical low back pain is common and often related to muscle strain or overuse, as seen in this construction worker who was moving furniture. Choice A (Herniated disc) is incorrect as the patient does not have radiation of pain or neurological symptoms. Choice B (Compression fracture) is unlikely without a history of trauma or injury. Choice D (Ankylosing spondylitis) is less likely given the lack of inflammatory symptoms and typical age of onset.
Question 5 of 5
Pain, swelling, loss of both active and passive motion, locking, and deformity would be consistent with which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Articular joint pain. Pain, swelling, loss of motion, locking, and deformity are indicative of articular joint involvement. Articular joints are where two or more bones meet and allow movement. This type of pain is often associated with conditions like osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis, or joint injuries. Bursitis (choice B) typically presents with localized pain and swelling around a joint. Muscular injury (choice C) usually results in pain and limited motion but does not typically involve locking or deformity. Nerve damage (choice D) may cause pain and numbness, but it does not typically lead to joint locking or deformity.