A 44-year-old male client had abdominal surgery this morning. The nurse noticed a small amount of bloody drainage on the client's surgical dressing. This type of drainage is:

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Adult Medical Surgical ATI Questions

Question 1 of 5

A 44-year-old male client had abdominal surgery this morning. The nurse noticed a small amount of bloody drainage on the client's surgical dressing. This type of drainage is:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Drainage from a surgical incision is initially sanguineous (red), proceeding to serosanguineous (pink), then to serous (straw-colored). Purulent drainage usually indicates infection. This drainage should not be seen initially from a surgical incision. An incision with a Penrose drain may be expected to have a moderate amount of serosanguineous drainage in the first 24 hours, but in general drainage from a surgical incision is initially sanguineous (red), proceeding to serosanguineous (pink), then to serous (straw-colored). Catarrhal is a type of exudate seen in upper respiratory infections, not in surgical incisions.

Question 2 of 5

A 25-year-old client is admitted for a tonsillectomy and informs the nurse of having had episodes of muscle cramps, weakness, and an unexplained temperature elevation. Many years ago, the client's father died shortly after surgery subsequent to developing a high fever. The surgeon has ordered dantrolene sodium (Dantrium) prophylactically prior to the tonsillectomy to reduce the risk of:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Dantrolene sodium (Dantrium) is a peripheral skeletal muscle relaxant and would have no effect on a postoperative infection. Dantrolene sodium (Dantrium) is indicated prophylactically for clients with malignant hyperthermia or with a family history of the disorder. The mortality rate for malignant hyperthermia is high. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is an exercise-induced muscle pain and spasm and is not related to malignant hyperthermia. Dantrolene sodium (Dantrium) is a peripheral skeletal muscle relaxant and would have no effect on a postoperative fever.

Question 3 of 5

A client is scheduled for a coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) in the morning using a saphenous vein. The physician does not use the internal mammary artery for the bypass graft, because the internal mammary artery:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Many physicians do not use the internal mammary artery because it is time consuming. Removing the internal mammary artery does not pose a greater risk of reocclusion. In fact, it may stay patent longer. The internal mammary artery is larger in diameter than the saphenous vein. The internal mammary artery does not have too many valves.

Question 4 of 5

List the order in which you will assess these patients.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

Question 5 of 5

Which task is appropriate to delegate to the nursing assistant?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

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