A 43-year-old man who is a heroin addict is placed on methadone therapy to wean him off of heroin. Which of the following statements is true regarding the pharmacology of this agent?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) is used in acute rheumatic fever (choice D) for its anti-inflammatory and analgesic effects, reducing joint pain and inflammation in this autoimmune condition post-streptococcal infection. Vertigo (choice A) isn't an inflammatory condition aspirin targets. Peptic ulcer (choice B) is a contraindication, as aspirin exacerbates ulceration via COX-1 inhibition. Acute bronchial asthma (choice C) may worsen with aspirin due to leukotriene overproduction in sensitive patients. Acute rheumatic fever aligns with aspirin's anti-inflammatory utility, making it the correct therapeutic indication.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Fluoxetine (choice C), an SSRI, treats depression by selectively inhibiting serotonin reuptake, increasing synaptic levels. Imipramine (choice A) and Amitriptyline (choice B), tricyclic antidepressants, block multiple transmitters, not just serotonin. Maprotiline (choice D), a tetracyclic, primarily affects norepinephrine. Fluoxetine's specificity reduces side effects, making it a cornerstone in depression therapy.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: MAO inhibitors (MAOIs) raise monoamine levels by blocking their breakdown (choice D), risking hypertensive crisis with tyramine-rich foods (choice A). Selegiline (choice B) selectively inhibits MAO-B. However, combining MAOIs with SSRIs (choice C) causes serotonin syndrome, a dangerous interaction, not a useful synergy, making it the wrong statement. This highlights critical drug interaction knowledge.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.