ATI RN
Pharmacology Across the Lifespan ATI Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 42-year-old woman with a history of asthma has an attack and is brought to the emergency department for evaluation and treatment. She is wheezing and is short of breath. What is the most likely pathophysiology of this condition?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the most likely pathophysiology of the 42-year-old woman's asthma attack is increased secretion of mucus, making option B the correct answer. This is indicative of bronchoconstriction and airway inflammation, common in asthma exacerbations. Option A, bronchodilation, is incorrect as asthma is characterized by bronchoconstriction, not dilation. Option C, inflammation of the bronchial serosa, is a component of asthma pathophysiology, but the primary symptom in this case is increased mucus secretion. Option D, relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle, would actually be beneficial in asthma to relieve bronchoconstriction, making it an incorrect choice. Educationally, understanding the pathophysiology of asthma is crucial for nurses to provide effective care in emergency situations. Recognizing the underlying mechanisms of asthma attacks helps in implementing appropriate interventions like bronchodilators and anti-inflammatory agents to manage symptoms effectively. This knowledge enhances patient outcomes and promotes quality nursing care.
Question 2 of 5
A 39-year-old man with recurrent fungal infections is seen by his primary care physician. Consideration is given to prescribing terbinafine for this patient. Although the medication can be given without regard to meals, a possible problem with this medication can be which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is A) Accumulation in tissues. Terbinafine is an antifungal medication that is primarily metabolized in the liver and eliminated through the feces. Since terbinafine has a long half-life, there is a risk of accumulation in tissues, especially in individuals with liver impairment. This can lead to potential toxicity and adverse effects. Option B) Nephrotoxicity is incorrect because terbinafine is not known to cause kidney damage. It is mainly metabolized in the liver, so the risk of nephrotoxicity is minimal. Option C) Neuromuscular blockade is incorrect as terbinafine does not affect neuromuscular function. It primarily targets fungal cell membranes and does not interfere with neuromuscular transmission. Option D) Ototoxicity is also incorrect because terbinafine does not have any known association with causing damage to the auditory system. Educational context: Understanding the potential side effects and adverse reactions of medications is crucial in pharmacology. In the case of terbinafine, being aware of its metabolism, elimination, and potential for tissue accumulation is important to ensure safe and effective use in patients. Pharmacology across the lifespan involves considering factors such as age, organ function, and comorbidities that can influence drug pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics. This knowledge helps healthcare providers make informed decisions when prescribing medications to patients of different age groups and health conditions.
Question 3 of 5
A 39-year-old man with recurrent migraine headaches presents to his primary care physician for evaluation and treatment. Physical examination of the head and neck is unremarkable. Treatment with zolmitriptan has begun. This agent acts on which of the following receptors in the brain?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is D) Serotonin. Zolmitriptan is a selective serotonin receptor agonist commonly used to treat migraines. Serotonin receptors play a crucial role in the regulation of pain pathways, vasoconstriction, and inflammation, all of which are involved in the pathophysiology of migraines. By activating serotonin receptors, zolmitriptan helps to alleviate migraine symptoms. Option A) Acetylcholine is incorrect because zolmitriptan does not act on acetylcholine receptors. Acetylcholine is involved in functions like muscle contraction and autonomic nervous system regulation, not directly related to migraine treatment. Option B) Choline is incorrect as zolmitriptan does not target choline receptors. Choline is a precursor for neurotransmitter synthesis but is not the direct target for migraine treatment. Option C) Dopamine is incorrect because zolmitriptan does not act on dopamine receptors. Dopamine is involved in functions like reward, motivation, and motor control, not specifically related to migraine pathophysiology. Understanding the pharmacological mechanisms of drugs used in treating various conditions is crucial for healthcare professionals. Knowing how zolmitriptan works on serotonin receptors helps in making informed decisions when managing patients with migraines. This knowledge aids in selecting appropriate medications, understanding potential side effects, and optimizing patient outcomes.
Question 4 of 5
A 78-year-old woman with a long history of chronic open-angle glaucoma has failed numerous treatments with oral and topical agents. She has begun on a treatment regimen with an ophthalmic solution of echothiophate. Which of the following effects must the treating physician be aware of?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is A) Cataracts. Echothiophate is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to treat chronic open-angle glaucoma. One of the side effects of long-term use of cholinesterase inhibitors like echothiophate is the development of cataracts due to their impact on the lens of the eye. Option B) Narrow-angle glaucoma is incorrect because echothiophate is not used to treat narrow-angle glaucoma; it is specifically indicated for open-angle glaucoma. Option C) Open-angle glaucoma is incorrect because the patient in the scenario already has open-angle glaucoma, and echothiophate is being used as a treatment for this condition. Option D) Venous nicking of the retina is incorrect because this is not a known side effect of echothiophate. Educationally, understanding the side effects of medications used in the treatment of glaucoma is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide safe and effective care to their patients. Knowing the specific effects of each medication can help in monitoring and managing potential complications, as well as in making informed decisions about treatment options based on individual patient needs and risks.
Question 5 of 5
A 37-year-old female with mild arthritis presents to the clinic for follow-up. She states that she is doing much better because of doubling her dose of ibuprofen. Some days, she even triples her dose throughout the day. The physician warns the patient about peptic ulcers and bleeding from taking too much ibuprofen. She is offered alternatives, but the patient refuses because the ibuprofen works so well. What is the most appropriate therapy for this patient to prevent peptic ulcers?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate therapy for this patient to prevent peptic ulcers is option C) Lansoprazole. Lansoprazole is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) that helps reduce stomach acid production, thus decreasing the risk of peptic ulcers caused by the excessive use of NSAIDs like ibuprofen. Option A) Bismuth is not the best choice in this scenario as it is primarily used for treating Helicobacter pylori infections and mild cases of diarrhea, not for preventing peptic ulcers caused by NSAID use. Option B) Famotidine is an H2 receptor antagonist that works by reducing stomach acid production. While it can help with peptic ulcers, PPIs like Lansoprazole are more effective in this case. Option D) Misoprostol is a prostaglandin analog that can help prevent NSAID-induced ulcers by protecting the stomach lining. However, Lansoprazole is preferred due to its efficacy and better tolerability. In an educational context, understanding the appropriate pharmacological management for patients using NSAIDs long-term is crucial to prevent potential complications like peptic ulcers. This case highlights the importance of selecting the most suitable therapy based on the patient's condition and drug interactions to optimize treatment outcomes and minimize adverse effects.