ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 42-year-old woman has widely disseminated colon cancer. Her main symptom is pain from a spinal crush fracture, incompletely suppressed by oral morphine. She is also troubled by constipation, nausea and occasional vomiting. Which of the following is true?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Metastatic colon cancer with spinal pain needs palliation. Fentanyl patches cause nausea, like morphine, due to opioid effects, so that's false. Cisplatin, for other cancers, doesn't prolong survival in advanced colon cancer (FOLFOX does). Radiotherapy to the primary isn't mainstay for metastases; palliation is. Biopsy of the vertebra is unnecessary with known cancer. Intercostal nerve block targets chest pain, not spinal, but localized nerve blocks (e.g., epidural) are true options for refractory pain, making this the best fit per key.
Question 2 of 5
The physician has prescribed a brand name drug for the client. The client tells the nurse that the medication is too expensive. What is the best plan by the nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Generic drugs, bioequivalent to brand names, cost less, making substitution the best plan to address expense while maintaining therapy. Assistance programs help but delay access. Cheaper brands may not exist or differ therapeutically. Samples are unsustainable. Generics offer a practical, immediate solution, widely supported by formularies, aligning with cost-effective care.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse teaches a class about medication used during pregnancy to pregnant women. The nurse determines that additional instruction is required when a class participant makes which response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Drugs harm fetuses across trimesters-first (organogenesis) is critical, but later effects (e.g., growth) occur, so this needs correction. Avoiding OTC drugs is wise-many risk harm. Teratogens cause death or defects, true. Breast milk transfers drugs, also true. First-trimester-only harm misstates risk, requiring reteaching.
Question 4 of 5
The patient asks the nurse why she needs to continue using table salt because her prescribed lithium (Eskalith) is a salt. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Lithium competes with sodium-adequate salt and hydration (1-1.5 L water) prevent toxicity by aiding excretion, per pharmacokinetics. Sea salt isn't less needed-sodium's the key. Retention isn't direct-hydration matters more. Increasing salt for toxicity is reactive, not preventive. Water trumps salt, clarifying use.
Question 5 of 5
A 39-year-old man is a chronic alcoholic and is in and out of a rehabilitation center on a monthly basis. His physician administers a blocker of aldehyde dehydrogenase and the patient becomes violently ill with nausea, vomiting, chills, sweats, and hyperventilation. The same reaction occurs 1 week later after medication administration and was felt to be intolerable by the patient. Which of the following is the next best course of action to take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The patient's severe reaction to disulfiram (aldehyde dehydrogenase blocker) suggests alcohol exposure, making it intolerable. Option continues the issue. Option intentionally triggers the reaction, unethical. Option , discontinuing disulfiram and starting naltrexone, is correct-naltrexone reduces alcohol cravings via opioid receptor antagonism, offering a safer alternative. Option , alprazolam, treats anxiety but not alcoholism. Option (E), psychotherapy, lacks immediate pharmacotherapy. Naltrexone addresses the root addiction without aversive effects, aligning with the patient's intolerance and chronic relapse pattern.