A 42-year-old man has come to the clinic for an annual physical. The nurse notes in the patients history that his father was treated for breast cancer. What should the nurse provide to the patient before he leaves the clinic?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A referral for a mammogram. Given the family history of breast cancer in the patient's father, the nurse should recommend a mammogram as a preventive measure due to increased risk. Mammograms are effective in detecting breast cancer early, especially in individuals with a family history. This can help in early diagnosis and timely intervention if needed. B: Instructions about breast self-examination (BSE) can be helpful, but in this case, a mammogram is a more definitive screening tool for high-risk individuals. C: A referral to a surgeon is not necessary at this point as the patient does not exhibit any symptoms of breast cancer. D: Referral to a support group may be beneficial for emotional support, but the priority should be on proactive screening measures like a mammogram.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Basal metabolic rate (BMR). BMR refers to the minimum amount of energy required to maintain basic physiological functions at rest. It accounts for about 60-75% of total energy expenditure. It is essential for sustaining life-sustaining activities such as breathing, circulating blood, and maintaining body temperature. Incorrect Choices: A: Resting energy expenditure (REE) is the total amount of energy expended by the body while at rest, including BMR and additional energy for daily activities. C: Nutrient density refers to the amount of nutrients per calorie in a food item, not the energy needed at rest. D: Nutrients are essential substances in food required for growth, maintenance, and repair, but they do not specifically refer to the energy needed at rest.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Do not visit if you've had a recent infection. This is crucial to prevent the transmission of infections to the patient, who will have a compromised immune system post-HSCT. Family and friends with recent infections can pose a serious risk to the patient's health. Choice A is incorrect because it instills fear and negativity in the family without providing any tangible benefits. Choice B is incorrect as fasting is not typically required before a HSCT and can be harmful to the patient's nutritional status. Choice C is incorrect as wearing a hospital gown is generally not necessary for visitors, unless specified by the healthcare team for infection control purposes.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D - The patient will benefit from a low-protein diet. Patients with Huntington disease often experience difficulty swallowing and may have involuntary movements, leading to weight loss. A low-protein diet can help manage these symptoms and reduce the risk of aspiration pneumonia. This diet can also help control the chorea movements associated with the disease. Choice A is incorrect as patients with Huntington disease often have reduced appetite due to swallowing difficulties. Choice B is incorrect as enzyme supplements are not typically indicated in the management of Huntington disease. Choice C is incorrect as a clear liquid diet is not suitable for meeting the nutritional needs of a patient with Huntington disease, who may already be at risk for malnutrition.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Isolate affected residents from residents who have not developed conjunctivitis. This is the most appropriate action to prevent the spread of viral conjunctivitis in a long-term care facility. By isolating affected residents, the nurse can minimize the risk of transmission to other residents. Choice A is incorrect because prophylactic antibiotics are not effective against viral conjunctivitis. Choice B is also incorrect as normal saline does not treat viral conjunctivitis but may provide comfort. Choice C is unnecessary as viral conjunctivitis is typically diagnosed clinically and does not require culture testing.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because treatment for HSV2 focuses on relieving symptoms since the virus cannot be cured. Antiviral medications can help manage outbreaks and reduce the frequency and severity of symptoms. Option A is incorrect as HSV2 typically presents as genital herpes, not cold sores on the lips (usually caused by HSV1). Option B is incorrect since antibiotics are ineffective against viruses. Option C is incorrect as HSV2 is most contagious during active outbreaks, making it important to practice safe sex to prevent transmission.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Scheduled analgesia should be administered around-the-clock to prevent pain. After undergoing a wide excision of the vulva, the patient is likely to experience significant pain. Scheduled analgesia ensures that the patient receives pain relief consistently, preventing pain from becoming severe. This approach helps to maintain a therapeutic level of pain control and improves patient comfort and satisfaction. Choice A is incorrect because withholding analgesia until the pain becomes unbearable can lead to unnecessary suffering and poor pain management. Choice C is incorrect as PRN dosing may result in inadequate pain relief and fluctuations in pain control. Choice D is incorrect as opioids are often necessary for postoperative pain management, and NSAIDs alone may not provide sufficient relief for the level of pain associated with a wide excision surgery.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Rationale: Assessing breath sounds is crucial in evaluating respiratory status as it helps identify any signs of airway obstruction or respiratory distress. This includes listening for wheezing, crackles, or diminished breath sounds. Lung function testing (A) may not be feasible in an acute emergency situation. Oxygen saturation (C) is important but does not provide a comprehensive assessment of respiratory status. Monitoring respiratory pattern (D) and assessing respiratory rate (E) are important but do not directly assess breath sounds, which are vital in identifying immediate respiratory issues.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Recurrent pelvic infections. Pelvic infections can lead to scarring and blockage of the fallopian tubes, increasing the risk of ectopic pregnancy. Ovarian cysts and oral contraceptives are not directly linked to ectopic pregnancies. Heavy menstrual flow does not inherently increase the risk of ectopic pregnancy.