ATI RN
foundation of nursing questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A 42-year-old man has come to the clinic for an annual physical. The nurse notes in the patients history that his father was treated for breast cancer. What should the nurse provide to the patient before he leaves the clinic?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A referral for a mammogram. Given the family history of breast cancer in the patient's father, the nurse should recommend a mammogram as a preventive measure due to increased risk. Mammograms are effective in detecting breast cancer early, especially in individuals with a family history. This can help in early diagnosis and timely intervention if needed. B: Instructions about breast self-examination (BSE) can be helpful, but in this case, a mammogram is a more definitive screening tool for high-risk individuals. C: A referral to a surgeon is not necessary at this point as the patient does not exhibit any symptoms of breast cancer. D: Referral to a support group may be beneficial for emotional support, but the priority should be on proactive screening measures like a mammogram.
Question 2 of 9
A patient has been referred to the breast clinic after her most recent mammogram revealed the presence of a lump. The lump is found to be a small, well-defined nodule in the right breast. The oncology nurse should recognize the likelihood of what treatment?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lumpectomy and radiation. For a small, well-defined nodule in the breast, lumpectomy (removal of the lump) followed by radiation therapy is usually the treatment of choice for early-stage breast cancer. This approach aims to preserve the breast while ensuring effective treatment. Partial mastectomy (B) involves removing a larger portion of the breast tissue and is not typically necessary for a small, well-defined nodule. Chemotherapy (C) is generally used for more advanced stages of breast cancer or when the cancer has spread beyond the breast. Total mastectomy (D) is considered when the cancer is more extensive or in cases where lumpectomy is not feasible.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is assessing a patient who presented to the ED with priapism. The student nurse is aware that this condition is classified as a urologic emergency because of the potential for what?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Permanent vascular damage. Priapism is a prolonged erection that can lead to ischemia and damage to the penile tissue due to impaired blood flow, potentially resulting in permanent vascular damage. Urinary tract infection (A) is unrelated to priapism. Chronic pain (B) may occur but is not the primary concern. Future erectile dysfunction (D) can result from priapism but is not as immediate or severe as permanent vascular damage. Therefore, C is the most critical consequence to address in priapism.
Question 4 of 9
A woman calls the clinic and tells the nurse she has had bloody drainage from her right nipple. The nurse makes an appointment for this patient, expecting the physician or practitioner to order what diagnostic test on this patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Breast ultrasound. Bloody drainage from the nipple can be indicative of various conditions such as breast cancer. A breast ultrasound is a non-invasive imaging test that can help visualize any abnormalities in the breast tissue, including masses or tumors. It is commonly used to evaluate breast symptoms like nipple discharge. Radiography (B) is not typically used for evaluating breast conditions. Positron emission testing (PET) (C) is more commonly used in cancer staging and may not be the first-line test for this symptom. Galactography (D) is a specific imaging test used to evaluate the ducts of the breast and may not be the initial test for bloody nipple discharge.
Question 5 of 9
A patient with a hip fracture is having difficulty defecating into a bedpan while lying in bed. Which action by the nurse will assist the patient in having a successful bowel movement?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale: Option D is correct because raising the head of the bed promotes a more natural position for defecation, allowing gravity to assist. This position helps align the rectum and anal canal, making it easier for the patient to have a bowel movement. Administering laxatives (Option C) may help, but adjusting the bed position is a non-invasive and more immediate intervention. Withholding pain medication (Option B) could lead to unnecessary discomfort for the patient. Administering a barium enema (Option A) is not indicated for addressing difficulty with defecation.
Question 6 of 9
A patient has a decreased gag reflex, left-sided weakness, and drooling. Which action will the nurse take when feeding this patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Flex head with chin tuck. This position helps prevent aspiration by closing off the airway during swallowing. Flexing the head and tucking the chin promotes safe swallowing and reduces the risk of choking. Placing food on the left side (choice C) is not relevant to addressing the patient's symptoms. Positioning in semi-Fowler's (choice A) may not directly address the swallowing difficulty. Offering fruit juice (choice D) does not address the patient's specific feeding needs and may not be safe if the patient has swallowing difficulties.
Question 7 of 9
A 32-year-old primigravida is admitted with a diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy. Nursing care is N R I G B.C M U S N T O based on which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because hemorrhage is the primary concern in ectopic pregnancy due to the risk of rupture and severe bleeding. Immediate intervention is crucial to prevent life-threatening complications. Choice B is incorrect as future fertility may be affected but is not the immediate concern. Choice C is incorrect as bed rest and analgesics are not effective treatments for ectopic pregnancy. Choice D is incorrect as a D&C is not performed in ectopic pregnancy; surgical intervention is required to remove the ectopic pregnancy.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is planning care for a group of patients.Which task will the nurse assign to the nursing assistive personnel?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Obtaining a midstream urine specimen. This task is within the scope of practice for nursing assistive personnel as it involves collecting a specimen, which is a routine and non-invasive procedure. Nursing assistive personnel are trained to perform basic tasks like specimen collection. Choices B, C, and D involve more complex skills and procedures that require specialized training and knowledge, which are typically performed by licensed nurses. Interpreting bladder scan results (B), inserting a straight catheter (C), and irrigating a catheter (D) all require a higher level of expertise and assessment that nursing assistive personnel are not qualified to do.
Question 9 of 9
A patient at high risk for breast cancer is scheduled for an incisional biopsy in the outpatient surgery department. When the nurse is providing preoperative education, the patient asks why an incisional biopsy is being done instead of just removing the mass. What would be the nurses best response?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because an incisional biopsy is typically performed to confirm a diagnosis by obtaining a sample of the tissue in question. This allows for further analysis through special studies to determine the best course of treatment. The other choices are incorrect because: A: The reason for performing an incisional biopsy is not primarily based on pain or accuracy comparisons with other testing methods. C: An incisional biopsy is not done to assess potential recovery from a mastectomy but rather to diagnose the nature of the mass. D: Age and general health status are not sole criteria for determining the need for an incisional biopsy.