A 42-year-old female has foamy purulent vaginal discharges. The smear stained by Romanovsky- Giemsa's method has been found to include flagellated bacteria. What is the most likely microorganism that has been found by the doctor?

Questions 80

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Microbiology Chapter 11 Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

A 42-year-old female has foamy purulent vaginal discharges. The smear stained by Romanovsky- Giemsa's method has been found to include flagellated bacteria. What is the most likely microorganism that has been found by the doctor?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trichomonas vaginalis. Trichomonas vaginalis is a flagellated protozoan parasite commonly found in vaginal infections. The presence of flagellated bacteria in the vaginal discharge stained with Romanovsky-Giemsa method indicates a protozoan infection, ruling out bacterial or viral causes. Choices B, C, and D are not correct as Leishmania donovani causes leishmaniasis, Trypanosoma gambiense causes African sleeping sickness, and Trihomonas hominis is a non-pathogenic flagellate found in the human intestine, not typically associated with vaginal infections.

Question 2 of 9

Researchers of a bacteriological laboratory examine tinned meat for botulinic toxin. For this purpose a group of mice was injected with an extract of the material under examination and antitoxic antibotulinic serum of A, B, E types. A control group of mice was injected with the same extract but without antibotulinic serum. What serological reaction was applied?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neutralization. In this experiment, the researchers used antitoxic antibotulinic serum of different types to neutralize the botulinic toxin in tinned meat extract injected into mice. Neutralization is the process of rendering a toxin harmless by combining it with specific antibodies. The purpose of injecting the antitoxic serum was to neutralize the toxin and prevent it from causing harm to the mice. This serological reaction of neutralization directly aligns with the objective of the experiment. Summary of other choices: B: Precipitation - Precipitation involves the formation of a visible insoluble complex when an antigen reacts with its corresponding antibody. This process was not described in the scenario. C: Complement binding - Complement binding involves the activation of the complement system by antigen-antibody complexes. This was not the main focus of the experiment described. D: Double immune diffusion - This technique is used to detect the presence of specific antigens or antibodies

Question 3 of 9

Many peptic ulcers are due to:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Helicobacter pylori. This bacterium is the main cause of peptic ulcers by damaging the protective lining of the stomach and duodenum. It secretes enzymes that weaken the mucosal barrier, allowing stomach acid to cause damage. Salmonella typhi (A) causes typhoid fever, not peptic ulcers. Shigella boydii (C) causes dysentery, not peptic ulcers. Salmonella enterica (D) causes food poisoning, not peptic ulcers. Therefore, the correct answer is B based on its direct association with peptic ulcer formation.

Question 4 of 9

Which of the following characteristics of mumps infection is NOT true:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Mumps is a contagious disease transmitted through air droplets and direct contact. 2. The correct answer is A because mumps can infect both humans and animals. 3. Choice B is incorrect as mumps is vaccine-preventable. 4. Choice C is correct as mumps is highly contagious. 5. Choice D is accurate as mumps is transmitted via air droplets and direct contact. Summary: The correct answer is A because mumps can infect both humans and animals, making it untrue that only humans can be infected. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as mumps is vaccine-preventable, highly contagious, and transmitted through air droplets and direct contact.

Question 5 of 9

During bacteriological examination of sputum of a child with choking cough and fever there were revealed glossy smooth colonies growing on casein-charcoal agar and reminding of mercury drops. Microscopic examination revealed short Gram-negative bacteria. What microorganism was secured from the sputum?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bordetella pertussis. Glossy smooth colonies growing on casein-charcoal agar resembling mercury drops indicate Bordetella pertussis, the causative agent of whooping cough. The presence of short Gram-negative bacteria further supports this identification. Option B, Haemophilus influenzae, typically grows as small, round, translucent colonies on chocolate agar. Option C, Corynebacterium diphtheriae, forms gray colonies on tellurite agar. Option D, Klebsiella pneumoniae, appears as mucoid colonies on MacConkey agar.

Question 6 of 9

There is/are __________ level(s) of biosafety depending on the organisms handled.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D (4) because biosafety levels range from 1 to 4, each corresponding to the level of containment required when handling different types of organisms. BSL-1 is for low-risk agents, while BSL-4 is for dangerous pathogens. Choice A (1) is incorrect as there are multiple levels, not just one. Choice B (2) and C (3) are incorrect as they do not account for all the levels of biosafety required for handling various organisms. Therefore, D is the correct answer as it encompasses the full range of biosafety levels.

Question 7 of 9

The presence of specific antibodies in the reaction inhibition of hemagglutination is visualized by the;

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Absence of hemagglutination. In the reaction inhibition of hemagglutination, specific antibodies bind to antigens on red blood cells, preventing their agglutination. This results in the absence of visible clumping of red blood cells, which is known as hemagglutination. Therefore, the presence of specific antibodies is visualized by the absence of hemagglutination. Incorrect Choices: A: Absence of hemolysis - Hemolysis refers to the rupture of red blood cells, which is not relevant in the context of hemagglutination. C: Presence of hemagglutination - This is the opposite of what is expected when specific antibodies are present and inhibiting hemagglutination. D: Presence of hemolysis - Again, hemolysis is not directly related to the inhibition of hemagglutination by specific antibodies.

Question 8 of 9

When growing in artificial media, the number of bacteria increases in geometric progression via:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Logarithmic phase. During this phase, bacteria multiply exponentially due to abundant nutrients and favorable conditions. The growth is rapid and follows a geometric progression. In contrast, the Death phase (choice B) occurs when nutrients are depleted, leading to a decline in bacterial numbers. The Stationary phase (choice C) is when growth equals death rates, resulting in a stable population size. Choice D is incorrect because the Logarithmic phase accurately describes the exponential growth pattern of bacteria in artificial media.

Question 9 of 9

Enzymes used in ELISA are those except:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Β-lactamase. In ELISA, enzymes like alkaline phosphatase, horseradish peroxidase, and Β-galactosidase are commonly used as labels to detect the presence of specific molecules. Β-lactamase is not typically used in ELISA as it is an enzyme used to hydrolyze β-lactam antibiotics. Therefore, it does not serve the purpose of detecting specific molecules in ELISA. Alkaline phosphatase, horseradish peroxidase, and Β-galactosidase are preferred enzymes in ELISA due to their ability to produce a detectable signal when bound to specific molecules.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days