ATI RN
Microbiology Chapter 11 Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A 42-year-old female has foamy purulent vaginal discharges. The smear stained by Romanovsky- Giemsa's method has been found to include flagellated bacteria. What is the most likely microorganism that has been found by the doctor?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trichomonas vaginalis. Trichomonas vaginalis is a flagellated protozoan parasite commonly found in vaginal infections. The presence of flagellated bacteria in the vaginal discharge stained with Romanovsky-Giemsa method indicates a protozoan infection, ruling out bacterial or viral causes. Choices B, C, and D are not correct as Leishmania donovani causes leishmaniasis, Trypanosoma gambiense causes African sleeping sickness, and Trihomonas hominis is a non-pathogenic flagellate found in the human intestine, not typically associated with vaginal infections.
Question 2 of 9
A patient was admitted to the hospital on the 7th day of the disease with complaints of high temperature, headache, pain in the muscles, especially in calf muscles. Dermal integuments and scleras are icteric. There is hemorrhagic rash on the skin. Urine is bloody. The patient was fishing two weeks ago. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most likely diagnosis is A: Leptospirosis. Leptospirosis is caused by the spirochete Leptospira interrogans and is commonly transmitted through contact with water contaminated by animal urine, such as in this case of fishing. The symptoms described match those of leptospirosis, including high fever, headache, muscle pain, jaundice, hemorrhagic rash, and bloody urine. The calf muscle pain is a characteristic symptom of leptospirosis known as "Weil's disease." Yersiniosis (B) typically presents with abdominal symptoms, Salmonellosis (C) with gastrointestinal symptoms, and Brucellosis (D) with flu-like symptoms. Therefore, based on the symptoms and history provided, Leptospirosis is the most likely diagnosis.
Question 3 of 9
The tool of choice to observe living microorganisms is the
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: phase-contrast microscope. This type of microscope is ideal for observing living microorganisms because it enhances the contrast of transparent specimens without the need for staining or fixing, allowing for clear visualization of internal structures and movements. Bright-field microscopes (A) are suitable for observing fixed and stained specimens, not living organisms. Fluorescence microscopes (C) are used to detect specific cellular components tagged with fluorescent markers, not ideal for observing overall morphology. Electron microscopes (D) use electron beams and are best for viewing detailed structures at high magnification, but are not suitable for observing living organisms due to the need for vacuum conditions.
Question 4 of 9
The typhoid fever is produced mainly by:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Salmonella typhi. Typhoid fever is caused by the bacterium Salmonella typhi. This bacterium is responsible for causing the systemic infection that leads to symptoms such as high fever, abdominal pain, and diarrhea. Yersinia pestis (choice A) causes plague, Shigella dysenteriae (choice B) causes dysentery, and Escherichia coli (choice C) can cause various gastrointestinal infections, but not typhoid fever. Salmonella typhi specifically targets the intestines and is transmitted through contaminated food or water. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer for the cause of typhoid fever.
Question 5 of 9
Axial filaments consist of
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Axial filaments, also known as endoflagella, are composed of proteins. These proteins form a helical structure that enables certain bacteria, such as spirochetes, to move in a corkscrew-like motion. Proteins are the main structural component of axial filaments due to their flexibility and ability to generate movement. Choice B, polyphosphates, are not typically associated with axial filaments, as they are more involved in energy storage and transfer. Choice C, volutin granules, are storage inclusions of inorganic polyphosphate and are not part of axial filaments. Choice D, carbohydrates, are not the primary component of axial filaments which are protein-based structures responsible for bacterial motility.
Question 6 of 9
A 4 year old child had Mantoux test. 60 hours after tuberculin introduction a focal skin hardening and redness 15 mm in diameter appeared. It was regarded as positive test. What type of hypersensitivity reaction is this test based upon?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Delayed-type hypersensitivity. The Mantoux test is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction, which is also known as delayed-type hypersensitivity. This reaction typically occurs 48-72 hours after exposure to an antigen, such as tuberculin in this case. The focal skin hardening and redness that appeared 60 hours after tuberculin introduction align with the timeline and characteristics of a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction. Summary: - Choice A (Delayed-type hypersensitivity): Correct, as explained above. - Choice B (Immune complex-mediated hypersensitivity): Incorrect, as this reaction involves immune complexes and typically presents with tissue damage and inflammation. - Choice C (Complement-mediated cytotoxic hypersensitivity): Incorrect, as this reaction involves the activation of complement proteins leading to cell lysis. - Choice D (Immediate hypersensitivity): Incorrect, as this reaction, such as in allergies, occurs within minutes to hours of exposure to an antigen and involves IgE-mediated mast
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following media is often used to grow Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Middlebrook's medium. This medium is specifically designed for the growth of Mycobacterium tuberculosis due to its low concentration of malachite green, which inhibits the growth of other bacteria but not Mycobacterium species. Middlebrook's medium also contains various nutrients that support the growth of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. A: Middlebrook's medium is the correct answer, not incorrect. B: Heart infusion broth is a general-purpose medium, not specific for Mycobacterium tuberculosis. C: MacConkey agar is selective for gram-negative bacteria and would not support the growth of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. In summary, Middlebrook's medium is the ideal choice for cultivating Mycobacterium tuberculosis due to its specific formulation that promotes the growth of this pathogen while inhibiting other bacteria.
Question 8 of 9
For shigella is true:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Shigella is a nonmotile bacterium. 2. This lack of motility is a key characteristic used to differentiate it from other enteric bacteria. 3. Nonmotile nature of Shigella helps it to cause infections by invading the intestinal epithelial cells. 4. Therefore, choice C is correct as Shigella is indeed nonmotile. Summary: A: Incorrect - Shigella does not produce hydrogen sulfide. B: Incorrect - Shigella does not ferment lactose. D: Incorrect - Shigella is not mannitol positive.
Question 9 of 9
What type of immune reaction is most common in identification of vibrio cholerae
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Agglutination. Agglutination is commonly used to identify Vibrio cholerae by clumping together the bacteria with specific antibodies. This reaction occurs when antibodies bind to antigens on the bacterial surface, leading to visible clumps. In contrast, Precipitation, Western blot, and ELISA are not typically used to identify Vibrio cholerae. Precipitation involves antigen-antibody complexes becoming insoluble, Western blot is used for protein detection, and ELISA is commonly used for detecting specific antigens or antibodies in a sample. Agglutination is the most appropriate choice for identifying Vibrio cholerae due to its specific interaction with the bacteria's surface antigens.