A 40 year old woman with aplastic anemia is prescribed estrogen with progesterone. The nurse can expect that these medications are given for which of the following reasons?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: To stimulate bone growth. Estrogen and progesterone are hormones that play a crucial role in maintaining bone density and promoting bone growth. In postmenopausal women or individuals with conditions like aplastic anemia, bone health can be compromised. Estrogen helps in preventing bone loss and maintaining bone strength, while progesterone also contributes to bone formation. Therefore, in this scenario, these medications are likely prescribed to help improve bone health in the woman with aplastic anemia. Incorrect choices: B: Estrogen and progesterone do not directly enhance sodium and potassium levels. C: Estrogen and progesterone do not regulate fluid balance absorption directly. D: Estrogen and progesterone do not specifically promote utilization and storage of fluids.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Probenecid (Benemid). Probenecid can increase methotrexate levels, leading to potential toxicity. Methotrexate is primarily eliminated by the kidneys, and Probenecid inhibits renal tubular secretion, causing methotrexate levels to rise. Digoxin (A), theophylline (C), and famotidine (D) do not have significant interactions with methotrexate. In summary, Probenecid is the correct answer as it can increase methotrexate levels through renal tubular secretion inhibition, while the other choices do not have a significant interaction with methotrexate.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nausea and vomiting. Chemotherapeutic drugs commonly cause nausea and vomiting due to their effect on the gastrointestinal system. This is because these drugs can irritate the stomach lining and trigger the vomiting center in the brain. Nausea and vomiting are well-documented side effects of chemotherapy and are often managed with antiemetic medications. A: Painful mouth sores are a common side effect of some chemotherapeutic drugs, but they are not the most common adverse effect. C: Frequent diarrhea can occur as a side effect of chemotherapy, but it is less common than nausea and vomiting. D: Constipation is not a common adverse effect of chemotherapeutic drugs; in fact, diarrhea is more commonly seen.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Human papilloma virus (HPV) infection at age 32. HPV infection is a well-known risk factor for cervical cancer as certain strains of HPV can lead to cellular changes in the cervix that may progress to cancer. Here's the rationale: 1. HPV is a known risk factor: HPV is a sexually transmitted infection that is strongly linked to the development of cervical cancer. 2. Age of infection: The client's history of acquiring HPV at age 32 is significant as long-standing HPV infection increases the risk of cervical cancer. 3. Other choices are not directly linked: Choices A, B, and C are not directly associated with an increased risk of cervical cancer. Age of sexual activity onset, spontaneous abortion, and eclampsia are not established risk factors for cervical cancer.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vision changes. Tamoxifen can cause serious ocular side effects like retinopathy and corneal changes. These adverse reactions can lead to vision impairment or loss, which is crucial to report immediately to prevent permanent damage. Headache (B), hearing loss (C), and anorexia (D) are not typically associated with tamoxifen use and do not pose immediate threats to the client's health compared to vision changes. It is important for the nurse to prioritize educating the client on recognizing and reporting vision changes promptly to ensure timely intervention and prevent irreversible consequences.