A 40-year-old woman is experiencing heavy menstrual bleeding and frequent urination. The nurse suspects fibroids. Which of the following would the nurse expect to find during the pelvic examination?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: A large, irregular, and tender uterus. Fibroids are non-cancerous growths that can cause heavy menstrual bleeding and frequent urination. During the pelvic examination, the nurse would expect to find a large uterus due to the presence of fibroids. The irregular shape is indicative of the growths, and tenderness may be present due to inflammation or pressure on surrounding tissues. Choices A, C, and D do not align with the typical characteristics of fibroids, making them incorrect. A smooth, enlarged uterus (A) is not characteristic of fibroids. A firm, mobile, and non-tender uterus (C) is more indicative of a normal uterus. A hard, irregular, fixed uterus (D) may suggest a different pathology, such as endometriosis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Proximal convoluted tubule. ADH acts on the collecting duct and distal convoluted tubule to increase water reabsorption. However, the majority of water reabsorption occurs in the proximal convoluted tubule due to its high permeability to water. This segment reabsorbs about 65% of filtered water, mainly through osmosis. The loop of Henle plays a crucial role in concentrating urine, but it is not the main site of water reabsorption. The collecting duct responds to ADH but reabsorbs a smaller fraction of filtered water compared to the proximal tubule. The distal convoluted tubule is primarily involved in electrolyte reabsorption rather than water reabsorption.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Absent testes. In a full-term newborn male, the absence of testes is a concerning finding that requires immediate investigation to rule out conditions like undescended testes or any underlying genetic abnormalities. This is crucial for ensuring normal development and future fertility. The other choices are incorrect because: B: Meatus centered at the tip of the penis is a normal finding in a full-term newborn. C: Wrinkled scrotum is a common and normal variation in newborns and does not typically require immediate investigation. D: Penis 2 to 3 cm in length is within the expected range for a full-term newborn and is not a cause for concern.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why Nystatin is the correct choice for monilial diarrhea: 1. Nystatin is an antifungal medication specifically effective against Candida species causing monilial infections. 2. It works by binding to ergosterol in fungal cell membranes, disrupting membrane integrity and causing cell death. 3. Nystatin is not absorbed systemically, making it suitable for gastrointestinal infections. 4. Amphothericin B is reserved for severe systemic fungal infections due to its significant toxicity. Ketoconazole and Itraconazole are not typically used for gastrointestinal Candida infections, as they are more commonly used for systemic fungal infections.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Chloramphenicol is effective in curing typhoid fever by targeting the bacteria causing the infection. 2. However, chloramphenicol does not effectively eradicate the bacteria from the carrier state. 3. Ceftriaxone, ciprofloxacin, and cotrimoxazole are also effective in treating typhoid fever but do not specifically target the carrier state. 4. Therefore, the correct answer is D, Chloramphenicol, as it cures typhoid fever but does not prevent the carrier state.