ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Practice A Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 40-year-old patient experiencing periods of mania and periods of depression would most likely benefit from which of the following?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Carbamazepine, a mood stabilizer, treats bipolar mania/depression-per psychiatry-unlike atomoxetine (ADHD), amitriptyline (depression), or methylphenidate (ADHD). It fits cycles, per evidence.
Question 2 of 5
An 18-year-old college student is hanging shelves in his dorm room. He accidentally hits his thumb with the hammer, which subsequently becomes swollen and red. He takes some aspirin for the pain. Many enzymes and other proteins are activated in response to injury leading to inflammation. Production of which of the following mediators is inhibited by aspirin?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Aspirin reduces inflammation from injury. PGE2 , a prostaglandin, is inhibited by aspirin's COX blockade. HAT , IκB , and NF-κB are unrelated. NO isn't primarily affected. PGE2's reduction explains aspirin's analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects.
Question 3 of 5
A 34-year-old man with seasonal allergic rhinitis that has been refractory to oral antihistamines is now placed on Singulair, a leukotriene receptor blocker, to see if this will improve symptoms. Important interactions with this medication include which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Singulair (montelukast) interacts with rifampin , a CYP3A4 inducer that reduces montelukast levels, decreasing efficacy. Ampicillin , chloramphenicol , and tetracycline lack significant interactions. Rifampin's effect is key in refractory rhinitis.
Question 4 of 5
Which antipsychotic has the most sedative potential and is sometimes questionably used as a hypnotic agent in certain clinical settings?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Quetiapine, a second-generation antipsychotic, has strong histamine H1 antagonism, conferring potent sedation, especially at low doses. This property leads to off-label use as a hypnotic in insomnia, though controversial due to metabolic risks. Fluphenazine and haloperidol, high-potency first-generation drugs, lack sedation, focusing on D2 blockade. Thiothixene, mid-potency, has minimal sedative effects. Iloperidone is less sedating. Quetiapine's antihistaminic action, backed by clinical practice, makes it the most sedative antipsychotic, often leveraged for sleep despite primary indications.
Question 5 of 5
The client receives beclomethasone (Beconase) intranasally as treatment for allergic rhinitis. He asks the nurse if this drug is safe because it is a glucocorticoid. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Beclomethasone, an intranasal corticosteroid, treats allergic rhinitis with minimal systemic absorption, reducing risks like adrenal suppression seen with oral steroids. The response 'Intranasal glucocorticoids produce almost no serious adverse effects' reassures the client accurately, as side effects (e.g., nasal irritation) are mild and rare. Swallowing isn't a significant concern due to low bioavailability. Prolonged use might increase minor risks (e.g., epistaxis), but isn't the primary safety factor. Once-daily use aligns with dosing but doesn't define safety. The nurse's best response (A) addresses the client's fear with evidence-based reassurance, emphasizing the drug's localized action and safety profile.