A 40-year-old man developed skin redness and an swelling in the neck area, where eventually a small abscess appeared. The section the focus is dense and yellow-green colored. In the purulent masses there are white granules. Histologically there are fungal druses, plasma and xanthome cells, and macrophages detected. Specify the most correct etiological name of this pathological process?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Actinomycosis. This is a chronic bacterial infection caused by Actinomyces species. In this case, the description of dense yellow-green colored focus, white granules in purulent masses, and presence of fungal druses, plasma cells, xanthome cells, and macrophages all match the characteristics of actinomycosis. Actinomycosis typically presents with abscess formation containing sulfur granules, which are yellowish and granular. The other choices (B: Furuncle, C: Carbuncle, D: Syphilis) do not fit the clinical and histological features described in the question, making them incorrect options.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: C. botulinum. The description of gram-positive bacilli with subterminal staining defect and tennis racket appearance is characteristic of Clostridium botulinum. The subterminal staining defect indicates the presence of spores, a feature of Clostridium species. The tennis racket appearance refers to the characteristic shape of C. botulinum spores. Choice B, P. vulgaris, is a gram-negative bacterium and doesn't match the description. Choice C, E. coli, is a gram-negative bacillus and doesn't exhibit the subterminal staining defect described. Choice D, S. aureus, is a gram-positive cocci and does not resemble the tennis racket appearance described.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chingamin (also known as Chloroquine). Chingamin is the drug of choice for chemoprophylaxis of malaria in regions with high risk. It is effective against Plasmodium falciparum, the most common malaria parasite. Chingamin is well-tolerated, affordable, and has a long track record of use. Sulfalen (Choice B) is not commonly used for malaria prophylaxis. Tetracycline (Choice C) is not recommended for malaria prophylaxis due to poor efficacy and resistance development. Metronidazole (Choice D) is not effective against malaria parasites.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Trichomonas tenax. Trichomonas tenax is a flagellated protozoan that is commonly found in the oral cavity, specifically in dental plaque. The description provided in the question matches the characteristics of Trichomonas tenax, such as unicellular structure, distinct layers in the cytoplasm, wide pseudopodia, and barely visible core. Entamoeba gingivalis (choice A) and Entamoeba histolytica (choice B) are amoebas, not flagellated protozoa, and they do not exhibit the characteristics described in the question. Lamblia (choice C) is also an incorrect choice as it is a different type of protozoan that does not match the description provided.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Streptococcus pneumoniae. This bacterium is the classic causative agent of croupous pneumonia due to its ability to infect the lungs and cause inflammation. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a common pathogen known for causing pneumonia in both adults and children. It is characterized by the presence of a capsule that helps it evade the host immune system. Choice A, Chlamydia pneumoniae, is not the correct answer as it is more commonly associated with atypical pneumonia. Choice C, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, is also associated with atypical pneumonia and not croupous pneumonia. Choice D, Staphylococcus aureus, can cause pneumonia, but it is not the classic causative agent of croupous pneumonia.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nystatin. Nystatin is specifically used to treat intestinal candidiasis because it targets and eliminates the Candida species responsible for the infection. It is not absorbed systemically, acting only locally in the gastrointestinal tract. Griseofulvin (B) is mainly used to treat fungal skin infections, not intestinal candidiasis. Undecyne (C) is an antifungal agent used for skin infections, not for intestinal candidiasis. Amphotericin B (D) is a potent antifungal agent used for systemic fungal infections, not specifically for intestinal candidiasis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Reaction type GRUBER. Agglutination reaction in GRUBER involves the clumping of particles due to specific antibodies binding to antigens on the surface. This reaction is commonly used in blood typing and serology tests. A: Western blot is a technique used to detect specific proteins in a sample, not related to agglutination. B: ELISA is an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay used to detect antibodies or antigens, not based on agglutination. D: Ascoli ring test is a method to detect the presence of DNA in a sample, not related to agglutination.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Protein A is a virulence factor specific to Staphylococcus aureus. This protein binds to the Fc region of immunoglobulins, inhibiting opsonization and phagocytosis. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Coagulase negative staphylococcus (choice A) does not produce Protein A. Micrococcus (choice C) is a different genus and does not possess Protein A. Choice D is incorrect because Protein A is indeed found in Staphylococcus aureus.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gram-negative stain. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a gram-negative bacterium, as indicated by the bluish-green pus color. This bacterium has an outer membrane that retains the crystal violet stain, making it appear pink/red after the counterstain with safranin in Gram staining. The other choices are incorrect because Pseudomonas aeruginosa does not typically form spores (B), has a rod-shaped morphology rather than a coccal form (C), and does not exhibit cell pairing (D).