A 40-year-old man developed skin redness and an swelling in the neck area, where eventually a small abscess appeared. The section the focus is dense and yellow-green colored. In the purulent masses there are white granules. Histologically there are fungal druses, plasma and xanthome cells, and macrophages detected. Specify the most correct etiological name of this pathological process?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Actinomycosis. This is a chronic bacterial infection caused by Actinomyces species. In this case, the description of dense yellow-green colored focus, white granules in purulent masses, and presence of fungal druses, plasma cells, xanthome cells, and macrophages all match the characteristics of actinomycosis. Actinomycosis typically presents with abscess formation containing sulfur granules, which are yellowish and granular. The other choices (B: Furuncle, C: Carbuncle, D: Syphilis) do not fit the clinical and histological features described in the question, making them incorrect options.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Amebiasis. The patient's symptoms of gastrointestinal disturbance and liver abscess are indicative of an infection with Entamoeba histolytica, the protozoan parasite responsible for amebiasis. The patient's travel history to an African country also increases the likelihood of contracting this disease, as it is more prevalent in tropical regions. Toxoplasmosis (A) is primarily associated with exposure to cat feces, Leishmaniasis (B) is transmitted through sandfly bites, and Malaria (C) is caused by Plasmodium parasites transmitted through mosquito bites. Therefore, these options are incorrect given the patient's presentation and travel history.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Penicillin. Penicillin is the drug of first choice for treating syphilis due to its effectiveness in eradicating the bacterium Treponema pallidum, which causes syphilis. It is the most reliable treatment with well-established efficacy. Gentamicin (A), ciprofloxacin (C), and chloramphenicol (D) are not recommended for treating syphilis as they are not effective against the specific bacteria causing the infection. Penicillin remains the gold standard for syphilis treatment.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lassa virus. The rationale is as follows: 1. Lassa virus is a member of the Arenaviridae family, known for causing Lassa fever. 2. Arenaviridae family includes viruses with a segmented genome and are transmitted through rodents. 3. Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever virus (Choice B) belongs to the Bunyaviridae family, not Arenaviridae. 4. Rabies virus (Choice C) belongs to the Rhabdoviridae family, not Arenaviridae. 5. Epstein-Barr virus (Choice D) belongs to the Herpesviridae family, not Arenaviridae. In summary, Lassa virus is the correct choice as it aligns with the characteristics of the Arenaviridae family, while the other choices belong to different virus families.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pneumoniae. This bacterium is a Gram-positive cocci that often appear in pairs and can have a capsule. It is a common cause of sore throat and fever, known as streptococcal pharyngitis. Staphylococcus aureus (B) is a Gram-positive cocci but does not typically form pairs. Neisseria meningitidis (C) is a Gram-negative diplococcus and is more associated with meningitis. Klebsiella pneumoniae (D) is a Gram-negative rod and not typically associated with sore throat and fever.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pertussis toxoid. This is because pertussis toxoid is a component of the pertussis vaccine, which provides specific prophylaxis against pertussis by stimulating the immune system to produce antibodies against the bacteria causing the disease. Choice B, killed vaccine, is incorrect as it does not specify pertussis toxoid. Choice C, wide-spectrum antibiotics, is incorrect as antibiotics are used for treatment, not prophylaxis. Choice D, None of the above, is incorrect as pertussis toxoid is specifically used for prophylaxis of pertussis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Acid resistance. Tuberculous bacilli are acid-fast bacilli, meaning they resist decolorization by acid-alcohol after staining with Ziehl-Neelsen stain. This property is due to the high lipid content in the cell wall of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Alkali resistance (B) and alcohol resistance (C) are not specific properties of tuberculous bacilli. Capsule formation (D) is a characteristic of some bacteria but is not a defining feature of tuberculous bacilli.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Acyclovir is an antiviral drug used to treat herpes infections, not influenza. Tamiflu, Amantadine, and Relenza are all antiviral drugs commonly used to treat influenza. Acyclovir works by inhibiting the replication of herpes viruses, so it is not effective against the influenza virus. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Mycobacterium tuberculosis. This bacterium can be transmitted via droplets in the air through coughing or sneezing. It is spread through respiratory droplets containing the bacteria. Streptococcus pneumoniae (A) is transmitted through direct contact with respiratory secretions, not through droplets in the air. Escherichia coli (B) is commonly transmitted through contaminated food or water, not through the air. Clostridium botulinum (C) is typically transmitted through contaminated food, not via respiratory droplets. Therefore, the correct choice is D as it is the only bacterium listed that can be transmitted via droplets in the air.