A 40-year old female patient is being followed up for diabetes mellitus. She is currently on Metformin 1 gram twice a day and has been tolerating it well for about six months. Her hemoglobin A1c a week ago was 8.9%. The plan is to initiate liraglutide therapy in addition to the metformin. Which of the following statements is true with regards to liraglutide.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Nausea and/or vomiting are common side effects of therapy. Liraglutide is a GLP-1 receptor agonist commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes. The side effects of liraglutide often include gastrointestinal symptoms like nausea and vomiting. This side effect is commonly seen in patients initiating liraglutide therapy. Choices A and D are incorrect as liraglutide should not be stored in the refrigerator or freezer before use, and it is administered subcutaneously, not intramuscularly into the upper arm. Choice B is incorrect as Bydureon is a brand name for exenatide, not liraglutide.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Probiotics are recommended to be co-administered with antibiotics because antibiotics can disrupt the balance of good and bad bacteria in the gut, leading to digestive issues. Probiotics help restore the balance by introducing beneficial bacteria. Antibiotics do not affect the same mechanisms as antidiarrheals, antihistamines, or antihypertensives, so co-administration with probiotics is not necessary for these medications.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the patient is exhibiting symptoms of an anaphylactic hypersensitivity reaction, which is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction to the antibiotic. Tachycardia, lowered blood pressure, wheezing, and urticaria are classic signs of anaphylaxis. The patient's history of previously tolerating the antibiotic without issues suggests an acquired hypersensitivity. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is unlikely as the patient has a history of taking the correct medication. Choice C (autoimmunity) does not fit the presentation of acute symptoms following antibiotic administration. Choice D is incorrect because the symptoms are consistent with an allergic reaction to the antibiotic.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Insulin glulisine (Apidra). This is a rapid-acting insulin because it has a quick onset of action, typically within 15 minutes. It is designed to be taken just before or after a meal to help control blood sugar spikes. Insulin detemir (Levemir) is a long-acting insulin, Regular insulin (Humulin R) is a short-acting insulin, and Insulin glargine is an intermediate-acting insulin. Therefore, based on the onset of action and timing of administration, insulin glulisine is the correct choice for rapid-acting insulin.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: It suppresses bone resorption. Estrogen plays a crucial role in maintaining bone health by inhibiting bone resorption, thus reducing the risk of osteoporosis. Estrogen does not directly reduce LDLs or fat deposits in the liver. While estrogen can have an impact on coagulation, it typically promotes anticoagulation rather than promoting and suppressing coagulation simultaneously. Therefore, choice A is the most appropriate response as it directly correlates with the effects of estrogen on nonreproductive tissues.