ATI RN
Anatomy of Hematologic System Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 4-year-old girl with a history of recurrent epistaxis and easy bruising is referred to you for evaluation. She is found to have a prolonged PTT and a factor VIII level that is less than 1%. Both parents have a history of excessive bleeding. She is admitted with a severe episode of epistaxis, and your colleague orders 40 IU/kg of recombinant factor VIII. Her epistaxis resolves initially but within an hour starts again at the same severity as before. What is the best next step?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Infuse a von Willebrand factor concentrate. In this case, the 4-year-old girl with a factor VIII deficiency did not respond to recombinant factor VIII, suggesting a possible von Willebrand disease (vWD) as well. Infusing von Willebrand factor concentrate can help address the underlying vWD component, which is necessary for adequate hemostasis. Option B is incorrect because giving another dose of recombinant factor VIII won't address the potential vWD deficiency. Option C is not the best next step as packing the nose does not address the underlying bleeding disorder. Option D is not the immediate next step as checking for a factor VIII inhibitor is important but can be done after addressing the acute bleeding episode with appropriate therapy.
Question 2 of 5
A 20-month-old otherwise healthy male presents late for his 18-month well child check. During his first year of life, he took iron-fortified formula and had a point-of-care hemoglobin (Hgb) of 12 g/dL at his 1-year well child check. His mother reports that he is a picky eater but loves milk and has recently become obsessive about chewing the corners of his cardboard books. Physical examination is normal except for a flow murmur. Which combination of laboratory test results listed below would most likely characterize this patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it indicates iron deficiency anemia. The low Hgb of 8.7 g/dL is below normal range for his age. The MCV of 60 fL is low, indicating microcytic anemia which is characteristic of iron deficiency. The serum ferritin level of 2 ng/mL is very low, supporting the diagnosis. Choice B is incorrect as the Hgb and MCV are within normal range, and the ferritin level is not indicative of iron deficiency. Choice C has a low Hgb but normal MCV and ferritin level. Choice D has a normal Hgb and low ferritin, but the MCV is high, inconsistent with iron deficiency anemia.
Question 3 of 5
A 12-year-old patient has been referred to you following complete resection with clean margins of a high-grade malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor of the shoulder region. The tumor measured approximately 4 cm in greatest dimension. A CT scan of the chest and a bone scan were within normal limits. The patient does not have evidence of neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1). Which of the following treatment approaches would you recommend?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Observation. Given the complete resection with clean margins, normal chest CT, bone scan, and absence of NF1, observation is appropriate. Chemotherapy or radiotherapy may be considered in the presence of residual disease, positive margins, or metastasis. Chemotherapy with doxorubicin and ifosfamide may cause unnecessary toxicity without clear benefit in this scenario. Radiotherapy may be reserved for cases with high-risk features. Combining chemotherapy and radiotherapy may lead to increased toxicity without proven benefit. Observation allows monitoring for disease recurrence while minimizing unnecessary treatment side effects.
Question 4 of 5
What is the nurse's priority when caring for a client who just completed a bone marrow aspiration and biopsy?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Check the pressure dressing frequently for signs of excessive or active bleeding. After a bone marrow aspiration and biopsy, the priority is to monitor for bleeding, as these procedures can cause bleeding complications. Checking the pressure dressing helps to detect any signs of excessive bleeding early, allowing for prompt intervention. This is crucial to prevent complications such as hematoma or hemorrhage. Incorrect choices: A: Teaching the client to avoid activity is important but not the priority immediately post-procedure. B: Administering NSAIDs may not be appropriate as they can increase the risk of bleeding. D: Reporting laboratory results is important but not the priority in this immediate post-procedure scenario.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is assessing a client experiencing anemia. Which laboratory findings will the nurse expect for this client? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: b
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased red blood cell count. Anemia is characterized by a decrease in the number of red blood cells, leading to a lower than normal red blood cell count. In anemia, the body cannot transport enough oxygen to tissues, leading to symptoms such as fatigue and shortness of breath. Increased hematocrit (A) and decreased hemoglobin (D) are related to anemia but not specific enough to be conclusive. Decreased serum iron (C) may be seen in iron-deficiency anemia but is not always present in all types of anemia.