ATI RN
ATI Hematologic System Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 4-year-old child with acute lymphoblastic leukemia is receiving high-dose methotrexate during interim maintenance. He receives ondansetron and арретitant during his stay, which control his nausea and vomiting well. These medications work by inhibiting signaling in which part of the brain?
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 2 of 5
An 18-month-old boy, whose parents are first cousins, is referred to you because of a significant episode of epistaxis. The parents report that the child had bleeding after circumcision and large hematomas with immunizations. Platelet aggregation studies show the following: This child's platelets are unable to interact with which of the following?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fibrinogen. In this case, the child is likely suffering from Glanzmann thrombasthenia, a rare inherited platelet disorder where platelets lack the ability to bind to fibrinogen. This results in impaired platelet aggregation and clot formation, leading to bleeding tendencies. The other options (A, C, D) are not affected in Glanzmann thrombasthenia. Platelets interact normally with ADP (A), von Willebrand factor (C), and Platelet factor 4 (D) in this disorder.
Question 3 of 5
A 17-year-old female presents with cervical adenopathy and a history of daily fevers and drenching night sweats. A biopsy is performed and reveals classic Hodgkin lymphoma. Which of the following is least appropriate as part of the staging workup?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Lumbar puncture and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis. In Hodgkin lymphoma staging, CNS involvement is rare at initial presentation. Therefore, routine CSF analysis is not recommended unless there are specific neurological symptoms suggestive of CNS disease. A lumbar puncture carries risks of complications and should not be performed routinely. Choices A, B, and C are appropriate for staging in Hodgkin lymphoma to evaluate for distant metastases and characterize disease extent.
Question 4 of 5
A 16-year-old patient with a left-side pelvic osteosarcoma is taking extended release oxycodone twice daily as well as immediate release oxycodone for breakthrough pain approximately 2 or 3 times per day. She describes her pain as burning, tingling, and shooting in her left leg. Her pain worsens with hot showers. Her most recent EKG has a QTc of 495. What would be the best strategy to manage her pain?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: The patient's pain is described as burning, tingling, and shooting in her left leg, which suggests neuropathic pain. Step 2: The pain worsens with hot showers, indicating sensitivity to temperature changes, a common feature of neuropathic pain. Step 3: Gabapentin is a first-line medication for neuropathic pain, as it stabilizes nerve cells and reduces abnormal pain signaling. Step 4: Starting low and titrating upward on gabapentin dose helps minimize side effects and optimize pain relief. Step 5: Methadone (Choice A) is not the best option for neuropathic pain. Increasing immediate release oxycodone (Choice B) may lead to opioid tolerance. Amitriptyline (Choice C) may help neuropathic pain but is not as specific as gabapentin.
Question 5 of 5
The patient is a 2-month-old boy who presented with a skin abscess and is febrile. On exam, he is noted to have silvery hair and hypopigmented skin. A CBC shows a leukocyte count of 3.4 K/mcL with 10% neutrophils. What does the abnormality on the peripheral smear suggest?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Abnormal lysosomal biogenesis. In this case, the clinical presentation of silvery hair and hypopigmented skin suggests a diagnosis of Chediak-Higashi syndrome, a rare autosomal recessive disorder affecting lysosomal function. The abnormal leukocyte count and neutrophil percentage indicate impaired immune function due to defective lysosomal biogenesis. The other choices, B: Abnormal ribosome function, C: Abnormal phagocytosis of opsonized particles, and D: Abnormal mitochondrial activity, do not align with the clinical presentation and laboratory findings of this specific case.