ATI RN
Pediatric Musculoskeletal Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 4-year-old child presents with symmetric weakness that began in the lower extremities and subsequently progressed over 10-14 days to involve the trunk and upper limbs. Deep tendon reflexes are absent. There are no sensory deficits or bowel or bladder dysfunction. Nerve conduction velocity test results are abnormal. The cerebrospinal fluid shows protein of 78 mg/dL and 5 white blood cells /μL. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Guillain-Barré syndrome is indicated by progressive symmetric weakness, absent reflexes, abnormal nerve conduction, and CSF with elevated protein but few cells (albuminocytologic dissociation).
Question 2 of 5
Scoliosis is a complex 3-dimensional spinal deformity that is defined in the coronal plane as a curve of at least 10 degrees, measured by the Cobb method, on a posteroanterior (PA) radiograph of the spine. Which statement is TRUE about this disease?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: AIS is more common in females (A is false), inheritance patterns are not 50% (B is incorrect), and melatonin levels are not consistently high (C is wrong). About one-third of girls with AIS have osteopenia.
Question 3 of 5
All the following are indications for external fixation in pediatric fractures EXCEPT
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Fractures with head injuries and spasticity are not a standard indication for external fixation; the others require stabilization due to soft-tissue compromise.
Question 4 of 5
The MOST severe non-lethal form of osteogenesis imperfecta which results in significant physical disability is type
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Type III is the most severe non-lethal form, causing significant deformity and disability.
Question 5 of 5
Matching: Bone and joint orthopedic terminology - Plantar-flexed foot
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Equinus describes a plantar-flexed foot position, often seen in conditions like clubfoot, due to limited dorsiflexion.