A 4 year old child had Mantoux test. 60 hours after tuberculin introduction a focal skin hardening and redness 15 mm in diameter appeared. It was regarded as positive test. What type of hypersensitivity reaction is this test based upon?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Delayed-type hypersensitivity. The Mantoux test is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction, which is also known as delayed-type hypersensitivity. This reaction typically occurs 48-72 hours after exposure to an antigen, such as tuberculin in this case. The focal skin hardening and redness that appeared 60 hours after tuberculin introduction align with the timeline and characteristics of a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction. Summary: - Choice A (Delayed-type hypersensitivity): Correct, as explained above. - Choice B (Immune complex-mediated hypersensitivity): Incorrect, as this reaction involves immune complexes and typically presents with tissue damage and inflammation. - Choice C (Complement-mediated cytotoxic hypersensitivity): Incorrect, as this reaction involves the activation of complement proteins leading to cell lysis. - Choice D (Immediate hypersensitivity): Incorrect, as this reaction, such as in allergies, occurs within minutes to hours of exposure to an antigen and involves IgE-mediated mast

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because Leptospira cannot be cultivated on blood and chocolate agar. The bacterium requires specialized media such as Ellinghausen-McCullough-Johnson-Harris (EMJH) medium for growth. Blood and chocolate agar do not provide the necessary nutrients for the bacterium's growth. Leptospira is a fastidious organism that has unique culture requirements. Therefore, the statement that Leptospira can be cultivated on blood and chocolate agar is incorrect. The other choices are correct: A - Leptospirosis is an acute infectious disease with a typical geographic distribution, B - Reservoirs of leptospira are different wild and domestic animals, mainly rodents, and D - Doxycycline and penicillins are drugs of choice for the treatment of leptospirosis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Helicobacter pylori is known for producing urease enzyme to neutralize stomach acid. 2. Urease enzyme converts urea into ammonia, buffering the acidic pH. 3. This adaptation allows H. pylori to survive in the acidic environment of the stomach. 4. Salmonella typhi, Escherichia coli, and Shigella flexneri do not produce urease. 5. Therefore, C is the correct answer based on the unique urease-producing capability of H. pylori.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mycobacterium tuberculosis. This bacterium is specifically associated with causing tuberculosis. Mycobacterium leprae (choice A) is associated with leprosy, not tuberculosis. Streptococcus pneumoniae (choice C) is associated with pneumonia, not tuberculosis. Escherichia coli (choice D) is a common bacterium found in the intestines and is not associated with tuberculosis. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the only bacterium directly linked to the disease, making it the correct choice.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Delayed-type hypersensitivity. The Mantoux test is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction, which is also known as delayed-type hypersensitivity. This reaction typically occurs 48-72 hours after exposure to an antigen, such as tuberculin in this case. The focal skin hardening and redness that appeared 60 hours after tuberculin introduction align with the timeline and characteristics of a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction. Summary: - Choice A (Delayed-type hypersensitivity): Correct, as explained above. - Choice B (Immune complex-mediated hypersensitivity): Incorrect, as this reaction involves immune complexes and typically presents with tissue damage and inflammation. - Choice C (Complement-mediated cytotoxic hypersensitivity): Incorrect, as this reaction involves the activation of complement proteins leading to cell lysis. - Choice D (Immediate hypersensitivity): Incorrect, as this reaction, such as in allergies, occurs within minutes to hours of exposure to an antigen and involves IgE-mediated mast

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The most likely diagnosis is A: Leptospirosis. Leptospirosis is caused by the spirochete Leptospira interrogans and is commonly transmitted through contact with water contaminated by animal urine, such as in this case of fishing. The symptoms described match those of leptospirosis, including high fever, headache, muscle pain, jaundice, hemorrhagic rash, and bloody urine. The calf muscle pain is a characteristic symptom of leptospirosis known as "Weil's disease." Yersiniosis (B) typically presents with abdominal symptoms, Salmonellosis (C) with gastrointestinal symptoms, and Brucellosis (D) with flu-like symptoms. Therefore, based on the symptoms and history provided, Leptospirosis is the most likely diagnosis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Axial filaments, also known as endoflagella, are composed of proteins. These proteins form a helical structure that enables certain bacteria, such as spirochetes, to move in a corkscrew-like motion. Proteins are the main structural component of axial filaments due to their flexibility and ability to generate movement. Choice B, polyphosphates, are not typically associated with axial filaments, as they are more involved in energy storage and transfer. Choice C, volutin granules, are storage inclusions of inorganic polyphosphate and are not part of axial filaments. Choice D, carbohydrates, are not the primary component of axial filaments which are protein-based structures responsible for bacterial motility.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pneumoniae. This bacterium is a common cause of pneumonia and is characterized by Gram-positive diplococci with a capsule. The presence of a capsule helps the bacterium evade the immune system and contributes to its virulence. Klebsiella pneumoniae (B) is a Gram-negative bacterium and does not typically have a capsule. Neisseria meningitidis (C) is a Gram-negative diplococcus and is associated with meningitis, not pneumonia. Staphylococcus aureus (D) is a Gram-positive bacterium, but it does not typically present as diplococci with a capsule in a sputum smear from a pneumonia patient.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Helicobacter pylori. This bacterium is the main cause of peptic ulcers by damaging the protective lining of the stomach and duodenum. It secretes enzymes that weaken the mucosal barrier, allowing stomach acid to cause damage. Salmonella typhi (A) causes typhoid fever, not peptic ulcers. Shigella boydii (C) causes dysentery, not peptic ulcers. Salmonella enterica (D) causes food poisoning, not peptic ulcers. Therefore, the correct answer is B based on its direct association with peptic ulcer formation.