ATI RN
NCLEX questions on chemotherapy drugs Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 39-year-old female is scheduled to undergo a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Induction of anesthesia will be undertaken with fospropofol instead of propofol. Advantages of fospropofol over propofol include which of the following?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Fospropofol, a prodrug of propofol, causes less pain at the injection site due to its water-soluble nature, unlike propofol’s lipid emulsion, which can irritate veins.
Question 2 of 5
A 22-year-old sexually active man presents to the ambulatory care clinic with dysuria, penile discharge, and a swollen right knee. A joint aspirate of his right knee reveals many neutrophils as well as some gram-negative diplococci. Which is the best choice to treat his condition?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Ceftriaxone is the first-line treatment for disseminated gonococcal infection (caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, gram-negative diplococci), effective against both genital and joint involvement.
Question 3 of 5
A 22-year-old African American man who is a college student plans to travel to Africa for a semester of study abroad. A university student health physician prescribes chloroquine for malaria prophylaxis starting 2 weeks before the trip. Soon after starting the regimen, the patient develops scleral icterus. What is the most likely underlying cause for the icterus?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Scleral icterus (jaundice) in an African American patient on chloroquine suggests glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency, causing hemolysis and bilirubin elevation.
Question 4 of 5
A 64-year-old man who has a history of transient ischemic attacks is taking clopidogrel. He presents to his primary care physician for follow-up. Which of the following should the primary care physician be concerned about in this patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Clopidogrel, an antiplatelet drug, is rarely associated with thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP), a serious condition involving microangiopathic hemolytic anemia and thrombocytopenia.
Question 5 of 5
A 58-year-old woman presents to the ambulatory care clinic with repetitive, uncontrollable lip smacking and puckering. Past medical history includes Type-2 diabetes for which she takes glipizide and metformin, hypercholesterolemia for which she takes lovastatin, bipolar disorder for which she takes haloperidol, and hypertension for which she takes hydrochlorothiazide. Which of her medications is likely causing her symptoms?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Haloperidol, a typical antipsychotic, is associated with tardive dyskinesia, characterized by involuntary movements like lip smacking, due to long-term dopamine receptor blockade.