ATI RN
Nursing Process NCLEX Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A 39 y.o. homemaker sees her physician after she falls twice for seemingly no reason. Diagnostic tests are done, and she is diagnosed with multiple sclerosis. Which of the ff. explanations will help her understand her disease?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Multiple sclerosis (MS) is characterized by damage to the myelin sheath, not a build-up of myelin. Step 2: MS affects the nerves, not neurotransmitters related to muscle contraction (eliminates choice B). Step 3: MS does not damage receptor sites on muscles but affects nerve signal transmission (eliminates choice C). Step 4: The correct answer, D, explains that MS damages the insulation on nerve cells (myelin sheath), leading to slower nerve impulses to the muscles, causing weakness and coordination issues.
Question 2 of 9
A client has malignant lymphoma. As part of her chemotherapy, the physician prescribes chlorambucil (Leukeran), 10mg by mouth daily. When caring for the client, the nurse teaches her about adverse reactions to chlorambucil, such as alopecia. How soon after the first administration of chorambucil might this reaction occur?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 2 to 3 weeks. Alopecia is a common adverse reaction to chlorambucil, a type of chemotherapy drug that can cause hair loss. Alopecia typically occurs around 2 to 3 weeks after the first administration of chlorambucil. This is because chemotherapy drugs affect rapidly dividing cells, including hair follicles. Hair loss is a well-known side effect of many chemotherapy drugs, and it is important for the nurse to educate the client about this potential side effect. Incorrect choices: A: Immediately - Hair loss does not occur immediately after the first administration of chlorambucil. C: 1 week - Hair loss typically occurs later than 1 week after starting chemotherapy. D: 1 month - While hair loss can occur within a month, it is more likely to happen sooner, around 2 to 3 weeks after starting the medication.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is using critical thinking skills during the first phase of the nursing process. Which action indicates the nurse is in the first phase?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Completes a comprehensive database. During the first phase of the nursing process (assessment), the nurse collects data to establish a comprehensive database of the patient's health status. This information serves as the foundation for identifying nursing diagnoses, planning interventions, and evaluating outcomes. Identifying nursing diagnoses (B) occurs in the second phase (diagnosis), intervening based on priorities (C) in the third phase (planning), and determining outcomes achieved (D) in the fourth phase (evaluation). Completing a comprehensive database is crucial in the initial assessment phase to gather accurate information for the subsequent steps in the nursing process.
Question 4 of 9
or a client with newly diagnosed cancer, the nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Anxiety related to the threat of death secondary to cancer diagnosis. Which expected outcome would be appropriate for this client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it reflects a measurable and client-centered outcome. Verbalizing feelings of anxiety indicates the client is acknowledging and addressing their emotions, which is essential in managing anxiety. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses on avoidance rather than expression of emotions. Choice C is incorrect as it doesn't specify the use of appropriate coping mechanisms. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests avoidance of seeking information, which may hinder the client's understanding and coping with the diagnosis.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is completing an assessment using the PQRST to obtain data about the patient’s chest pain. Match the questions to the components of the PQRST that the nurse will be using.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the "Where is the pain located?" question corresponds to the "P" component in the PQRST assessment, which stands for Provocative/Palliative factors. This question helps identify the specific location of the pain and what triggers or alleviates it. The other choices are incorrect because: - B: "What causes the pain?" corresponds to the "Q" component (Quality of pain), focusing on the characteristics of the pain. - C: "Does it come and go?" corresponds to the "R" component (Region/Radiation of pain), focusing on the pattern and radiation of the pain. - D: "What does the pain feel like?" corresponds to the "S" component (Severity of pain), focusing on the intensity of the pain.
Question 6 of 9
A patient is admitted to a medical unit with a diagnosis of heart failure. The patient reports that she has had increasing fatigue during the past 2 weeks. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this fatigue?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased cardiac output. Fatigue in heart failure is primarily due to decreased cardiac output, leading to reduced oxygen and nutrient delivery to tissues, causing fatigue. Dyspnea (A) is shortness of breath, not fatigue. Dry cough (C) is more associated with conditions like pulmonary issues, not fatigue. Orthopnea (D) is difficulty breathing while lying down, not specifically related to fatigue. Hence, decreased cardiac output is the most likely cause of fatigue in this patient.
Question 7 of 9
Mr. Reyes has a possible skull fracture. The nurse should:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because observing for signs of brain injury is crucial in assessing a possible skull fracture. Signs may include altered mental status, headache, nausea, vomiting, and unequal pupil size. Choice B is incorrect as hemorrhaging from the oral cavity may not always be present in skull fractures. Choice C is incorrect as elevating the foot of the bed is not recommended for a possible skull fracture. Choice D is incorrect as decreased intracranial pressure and temperature are not typical symptoms of a skull fracture.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following lab value profiles should the nurse know to be consistent with hemolytic anemia?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for the correct answer (A): 1. Increased RBC: Hemolytic anemia leads to increased RBC production as the body compensates for the destruction of red blood cells. 2. Decreased bilirubin: Bilirubin levels decrease due to the accelerated breakdown of red blood cells. 3. Decreased Hgb and Hct: Hemolysis causes a decrease in hemoglobin and hematocrit levels as red blood cells are destroyed. 4. Increased reticulocytes: Reticulocytes are immature red blood cells released by the bone marrow in response to increased RBC destruction. Summary: - Choice B is incorrect as hemolytic anemia would lead to increased, not decreased, bilirubin levels. - Choice C is incorrect as hemolytic anemia would lead to decreased, not increased, Hgb and Hct levels. - Choice D is incorrect as hemolytic anemia would not lead to increased levels of all parameters
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is using critical thinking skills during the first phase of the nursing process. Which action indicates the nurse is in the first phase?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because during the first phase of the nursing process (assessment), the nurse gathers a comprehensive database of information about the patient's health status. This includes collecting subjective and objective data to form a baseline for further decision-making. Identifying nursing diagnoses (B) occurs in the second phase (diagnosis), intervening based on priorities of patient care (C) is part of the third phase (planning), and determining outcomes (D) is done in the final phase (evaluation). Therefore, completing a comprehensive database is the most appropriate action in the first phase.