A 38-year-old patient presents to the clinic office complaining of increased bilateral tenderness of her breasts prior to the onset of menses. On questioning the patient, this

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because lumpy areas on the upper outer quadrants of the breasts are characteristic of fibrocystic breast changes, which commonly cause increased tenderness before menses. This finding is important for differential diagnosis and management. Choice B is incorrect because the size of the areas is less relevant than the location and characteristics. Choice C is incorrect as it is not specific to the clinical presentation described. Choice D is incorrect because while an ultrasound may be used in assessing breast lumps, the initial step would be to identify the specific characteristics on physical examination.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: During the luteal phase, the corpus luteum forms from the ruptured follicle after ovulation and secretes progesterone at high levels. Progesterone prepares the endometrium for implantation and maintains pregnancy. The proliferative phase (A) is characterized by estrogen dominance, preparing the endometrium for ovulation. The menstrual phase (B) involves shedding of the endometrium due to decreased hormone levels. The ovulatory phase (C) is marked by the release of the egg but not high progesterone levels. Thus, the correct answer is D as it aligns with the physiological events of the ovarian cycle.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: Vasectomy involves cutting and removing a small section of each vas deferens, the tubes that carry sperm from the testicles to the urethra. Step 2: By severing the vas deferens, sperm are physically blocked from reaching the urethra. Step 3: Without the ability for sperm to travel through the vas deferens to the urethra, they cannot be ejaculated during coitus. Step 4: Therefore, choice B is correct - the sperm will not be able to get from the epididymis to the urethra, causing infertility. Summary: Choice A is incorrect because ejaculation is the release of semen, not sperm. Choice C is incorrect as the testicles continue to produce sperm, but the sperm cannot reach the urethra. Choice D is incorrect as the acidity of seminal fluid does not affect the ability of sperm to travel through the vas deferens.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: FSH primarily acts to stimulate the maturation of the ovarian follicle. FSH facilitates the growth and development of the follicle in the ovary, leading to the release of a mature ovum during ovulation. This process is essential for successful reproduction. Choice A is incorrect because the development of the uterine endometrium is primarily influenced by estrogen and progesterone. Choice B is incorrect as the release of the mature ovum is triggered by the surge in luteinizing hormone (LH), not FSH. Choice D is incorrect as the development of the ovary itself is not a direct function of FSH.

Correct Answer:

Rationale: Correct Answer: A (Oxytocin), C (Prolactin) Rationale: 1. Oxytocin stimulates milk ejection (let-down reflex) by contracting the muscles around the alveoli, releasing milk. 2. Prolactin is responsible for the production of milk in the mammary glands. Summary of Other Choices: - Progesterone: Plays a role in preparing the breast for lactation but doesn't directly stimulate milk production. - Luteinizing hormone: Primarily involved in ovulation and corpus luteum formation, not milk production.