ATI RN
Pharmacology Practice Exam ATI Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 38-year-old man with hypertension experiences a first ever attack of acute pain, redness and tenderness in the left first metatarsophalangeal joint ('podagra'). His medication is furosemide, calcium carbonate and irbesartan. Serum uric acid is 0.78 mmol/L (upper limit of normal for men 0.48 mmol/L). Which of the following is most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Acute gout (podagra) requires rapid inflammation relief. Paracetamol offers analgesia but no anti-inflammatory effect, inadequate here. Aspirin, at low doses, retains uric acid, worsening gout; at high doses, it's uricosuric but not ideal acutely. Probenecid lowers uric acid long-term, not for acute attacks. Allopurinol prevents gout but can precipitate attacks if started now. Diclofenac, an NSAID, reduces inflammation and pain fast, the most appropriate acute treatment. Its efficacy targets gout's pathophysiology, critical for symptom control.
Question 2 of 5
The newly licensed nurse is preparing to administer a high dose of androgen to the female client. The nurse manager asks for the rationale. What is the best response by the new nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: High-dose androgens in females are used palliatively for certain breast cancers, especially hormone-sensitive ones, to suppress estrogen-driven tumor growth, easing symptoms in advanced disease. Athletic performance enhancement via androgens, while feasible, isn't clinically indicated and is illegal in regulated contexts. Brain cancer lacks evidence for androgen treatment, as it doesn't target neurological tumors. Sexual reassignment uses testosterone for masculinization, but high doses in clinical settings typically tie to cancer care, not transition. Breast cancer aligns with a recognized therapeutic use, leveraging androgens' anti-estrogenic effects, making it the most valid clinical rationale here.
Question 3 of 5
A patient looks up the drug he is taking in a drug guide. The patient asks the nurse why the physician prescribed a medication that has a lethal dose measure. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Lethal dose (e.g., LD50) from research guides safe dosing by showing toxicity thresholds, reassuring the patient it informs, not dictates, prescription. It's not just research trivia-doctors use it indirectly. Side effect watching doesn't explain it. Deferring to the doctor avoids education. Research value ties to safety, clarifying its relevance.
Question 4 of 5
The patient is receiving escitalopram (Lexapro) for treatment of generalized anxiety disorder. The patient asks the nurse, 'I am just nervous, not depressed. Why am I taking an antidepressant medicine?' What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Escitalopram, an SSRI, boosts serotonin, easing both anxiety and depression-shared neurochemistry (e.g., limbic dysregulation), per psychiatry. Calling it masked depression assumes unstated symptoms. Doctor's choice plus safety is true but less explanatory. Disorders don't always coexist-serotonin explains use, answering directly.
Question 5 of 5
A client takes calcium three times a day in the form of supplements. The nurse will advise the client to take the drug
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Calcium absorbs best with food-fat aids uptake, per pharmacokinetics-unlike empty stomach or tea (tannins bind). Zinc competes-separate dosing. Food optimizes, per guidance.