Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Microbiology Basic and Clinical Principles Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

A 38-year-old male complains of tonic tension of the masticatory muscles, so that he cannot open his mouth. 12 days before, he was bitten by an unknown dog. Objectively: there is pronounced tension and twitching of the masticatory muscles. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tetanus. The symptoms of tonic tension of the masticatory muscles following a dog bite are indicative of tetanus, caused by the bacterium Clostridium tetani. The incubation period of tetanus is usually 3-21 days, consistent with the patient's history of being bitten 12 days ago. Tetanus toxin causes muscle stiffness and spasms, leading to the inability to open the mouth. Rabies (B) presents with hydrophobia and neurological symptoms. Hysteria (C) is a psychological condition. Trigeminal neuralgia (D) is characterized by severe facial pain, not muscle stiffness.

Question 2 of 5

The oldest fossils of prokaryotes go back __________ billion years.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 3.5 to 4.0 billion years. This range aligns with the oldest known fossils of prokaryotes found in ancient rocks. Fossils dating back to this time period provide evidence of early life forms on Earth. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they fall outside the established timeline based on scientific evidence and fossil records. A (4.0 to 5.0 billion years) is too early for the oldest prokaryote fossils, as it predates the formation of Earth's atmosphere suitable for life. C (2.5 to 3.0 billion years) and D (2.2 to 2.7 billion years) are too recent for the oldest prokaryote fossils, as life is believed to have originated much earlier.

Question 3 of 5

The organism that is responsible for the vast majority of cases of fungal vaginitis is:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Propionibacterium acnes. This bacterium is not a fungus, but a common skin bacteria. Fungal vaginitis is typically caused by Candida albicans or other fungal species, not by bacteria like Escherichia coli, Streptococcus agalactiae, or Klebsiella oxytoca. Propionibacterium acnes is not associated with vaginal infections, making it the correct answer in this context.

Question 4 of 5

A blood culture from a patient with sepsis revealed Gram-negative diplococci. The bacteria were oxidase-positive and fermentative. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neisseria meningitidis. Step 1: Gram-negative diplococci - characteristic of Neisseria species. Step 2: Oxidase-positive - Neisseria species are oxidase-positive. Step 3: Fermentative - Neisseria meningitidis is a fermentative bacterium. Therefore, Neisseria meningitidis is the most likely causative agent. Summary: - B: Neisseria gonorrhoeae is also a Neisseria species but is not fermentative. - C: Moraxella catarrhalis is oxidase-positive but not fermentative. - D: Haemophilus influenzae is not a Neisseria species and is not typically fermentative.

Question 5 of 5

Francisella tularensis is a:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: non-spore forming encapsulated gram-negative bacterium. Francisella tularensis is a non-spore forming bacterium, which rules out choices A and D. It is encapsulated, which eliminates choice C. The encapsulation of the bacterium helps it evade the host immune system, leading to its pathogenicity. This encapsulated bacterium is responsible for causing the zoonotic disease tularemia in humans.

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