ATI RN
Pharmacological Lifespan Treatment Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 37-year-old man with a history of inguinal hernia undergoes elective surgical repair. The anesthesiologist is concerned about potential adverse effects of the inhalational agent chosen—halothane. The initial symptom of halothane's adverse reaction is which of the following?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 2 of 5
A 26-year-old man presents to an urgent care clinic with a dry cough for the past week. The cough was associated with a fever and chills for 2 days, but he has since been afebrile. He has no other symptoms. What opioid is most appropriate to treat this patient’s cough?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 3 of 5
A 59-year-old man with a history of recurrent bilateral kidney stones is placed on a medication to decrease calcium excretion. Unfortunately, 3 months after beginning this medication, he develops gout in his right great toe. The most likely explanation of these findings relates to which of the following medications?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 4 of 5
A 73-year-old man presents to the primary care clinic with increasing shortness of breath. He has had shortness of breath for many years, but it has been progressively worsening. It is associated with peripheral edema and dry cough. A transthoracic echocardiogram shows pulmonary hypertension. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Bosentan, an endothelin receptor antagonist, is a targeted therapy for pulmonary hypertension, reducing pulmonary vascular resistance and improving symptoms like shortness of breath and edema. Albuterol (a bronchodilator) treats asthma/COPD, not pulmonary hypertension. Guaifenesin (an expectorant) and N-acetylcysteine (a mucolytic) address mucus, not vascular issues. Theophylline (a bronchodilator) is outdated and ineffective for pulmonary hypertension.
Question 5 of 5
A 38-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 6-month history of occasional episodes of chest tightness, wheezing, and cough. The symptoms are often mild and resolve spontaneously. He has been otherwise healthy. His respirations are 13/min. The lungs are clear to auscultation. Cardiac examination and chest x-ray show no abnormalities. Which of the following agents is most appropriate to treat acute episodes in this patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: This patient has mild intermittent asthma (chest tightness, wheezing, cough). Albuterol (A), a short-acting β₂-agonist, is the first-line treatment for acute episodes, relaxing bronchial smooth muscle to relieve bronchospasm. Beclomethasone is an inhaled corticosteroid for maintenance, cromolyn prevents mast cell degranulation (not acute relief), ipratropium is an anticholinergic for COPD or severe asthma, and theophylline (E) is an older, less-used bronchodilator.