A 37-year-old man with a history of inguinal hernia undergoes elective surgical repair. The anesthesiologist is concerned about potential adverse effects of the inhalational agent chosen—halothane. The initial symptom of halothane's adverse reaction is which of the following?

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Question 1 of 5

A 37-year-old man with a history of inguinal hernia undergoes elective surgical repair. The anesthesiologist is concerned about potential adverse effects of the inhalational agent chosen—halothane. The initial symptom of halothane's adverse reaction is which of the following?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B) Fever. Halothane, a commonly used inhalational anesthetic, is associated with the development of a rare but serious adverse reaction known as halothane hepatitis. The initial symptom of this adverse reaction is typically a fever, which can progress to more severe symptoms such as jaundice, elevated liver enzymes, and potentially fatal liver failure. Anorexia (option A), nausea (option D), and hepatitis (option C) are all potential symptoms associated with halothane hepatitis, but they typically occur after the initial presentation of fever. Understanding the sequence of symptoms is crucial in identifying and managing adverse reactions to anesthetics like halothane. In an educational context, it is essential for healthcare professionals, especially anesthesiologists, to be aware of the potential adverse effects of commonly used anesthetics to ensure patient safety and provide timely interventions when needed. Recognizing the early signs of adverse reactions can help prevent the progression to more severe complications and improve patient outcomes.

Question 2 of 5

A 26-year-old man presents to an urgent care clinic with a dry cough for the past week. The cough was associated with a fever and chills for 2 days, but he has since been afebrile. He has no other symptoms. What opioid is most appropriate to treat this patient’s cough?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate opioid to treat the patient's cough is option B) Dextromethorphan. Dextromethorphan is a common antitussive medication used to suppress cough by acting on the cough center in the brain. It is effective in treating non-productive cough, which is the case for the patient presenting with a dry cough. Option A) Butorphanol is not commonly used for cough suppression but rather for pain management as an opioid agonist-antagonist. Option C) Diphenoxylate is an opioid used to treat diarrhea, not cough. Option D) Guaifenesin is an expectorant used to help loosen and thin mucus in the airways but does not directly suppress cough. From an educational perspective, understanding the appropriate pharmacological treatment for different symptoms is crucial for healthcare providers to make informed decisions in patient care. Knowing the mechanisms of action and indications for different medications helps ensure effective and safe treatment outcomes. In this case, recognizing the specific use of dextromethorphan for cough suppression aids in providing targeted therapy for the patient's presenting symptom.

Question 3 of 5

A 59-year-old man with a history of recurrent bilateral kidney stones is placed on a medication to decrease calcium excretion. Unfortunately, 3 months after beginning this medication, he develops gout in his right great toe. The most likely explanation of these findings relates to which of the following medications?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B) Hydrochlorothiazide. Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic medication commonly used to decrease calcium excretion and prevent the formation of kidney stones by reducing urinary calcium levels. However, one of the side effects of hydrochlorothiazide is the elevation of uric acid levels, which can lead to the development of gout. Option A) Furosemide is a loop diuretic that does not typically affect uric acid levels significantly, making it less likely to be the cause of gout in this case. Option C) Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that does not directly impact calcium or uric acid levels, making it an unlikely cause of gout in this scenario. Option D) Triamterene is a potassium-sparing diuretic that also does not typically affect uric acid levels, making it less likely to be the culprit behind the development of gout in the patient's right great toe. In an educational context, understanding the side effects of commonly prescribed medications is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide safe and effective care to their patients. This case highlights the importance of considering potential adverse effects when prescribing medications, especially in patients with comorbidities or a history of specific conditions, such as kidney stones and gout.

Question 4 of 5

A 73-year-old man presents to the primary care clinic with increasing shortness of breath. He has had shortness of breath for many years, but it has been progressively worsening. It is associated with peripheral edema and dry cough. A transthoracic echocardiogram shows pulmonary hypertension. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Bosentan, an endothelin receptor antagonist, is a targeted therapy for pulmonary hypertension, reducing pulmonary vascular resistance and improving symptoms like shortness of breath and edema. Albuterol (a bronchodilator) treats asthma/COPD, not pulmonary hypertension. Guaifenesin (an expectorant) and N-acetylcysteine (a mucolytic) address mucus, not vascular issues. Theophylline (a bronchodilator) is outdated and ineffective for pulmonary hypertension.

Question 5 of 5

A 38-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 6-month history of occasional episodes of chest tightness, wheezing, and cough. The symptoms are often mild and resolve spontaneously. He has been otherwise healthy. His respirations are 13/min. The lungs are clear to auscultation. Cardiac examination and chest x-ray show no abnormalities. Which of the following agents is most appropriate to treat acute episodes in this patient?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: This patient has mild intermittent asthma (chest tightness, wheezing, cough). Albuterol (A), a short-acting β₂-agonist, is the first-line treatment for acute episodes, relaxing bronchial smooth muscle to relieve bronchospasm. Beclomethasone is an inhaled corticosteroid for maintenance, cromolyn prevents mast cell degranulation (not acute relief), ipratropium is an anticholinergic for COPD or severe asthma, and theophylline (E) is an older, less-used bronchodilator.

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