A 37-year-old male client was admitted to the coronary care unit (CCU) 2 days ago with an acute myocardial infarction. Which of the following actions would breach the client confidentiality?

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Question 1 of 5

A 37-year-old male client was admitted to the coronary care unit (CCU) 2 days ago with an acute myocardial infarction. Which of the following actions would breach the client confidentiality?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because calling up the latest electrocardiogram results to check the client's progress breaches the client's confidentiality since this action involves disclosing the client's medical information to someone unauthorized to receive it. This violates the client's right to privacy and confidentiality. A, B, and D are incorrect: A: Giving a verbal report to the nurse on the telemetry unit is appropriate as it facilitates continuity of care and is within the scope of healthcare providers involved in the client's treatment. B: Notifying the on-call physician about a change in the client's condition is also essential for timely medical intervention and does not breach confidentiality. D: Updating the client's wife on his condition at his request is permissible as long as the client consents to sharing his medical information with his spouse.

Question 2 of 5

Nurse Lourdes is teaching a client recovering from addisonian crisis about the need to take fludrocortisone acetate and hydrocortisone at home. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the instructions?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because it demonstrates an understanding of the dosing schedule for both medications. Fludrocortisone acetate is usually taken in the morning to mimic the body's natural cortisol release, while hydrocortisone is typically taken in divided doses throughout the day to prevent adrenal insufficiency. Option C shows the client plans to take two-thirds of the dose in the morning and one-third in the late afternoon, aligning with the recommended dosing schedule. Option A is incorrect because taking hydrocortisone in the late afternoon is not ideal for mimicking the body's natural cortisol release. Option B is incorrect as taking all hydrocortisone in the morning may lead to suboptimal control of adrenal insufficiency throughout the day. Option D is incorrect because taking the entire dose at bedtime does not align with the recommended dosing schedules for these medications.

Question 3 of 5

Cleo is diagnosed with osteoporosis. Which electrolytes are involved in the development of this disorder?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Calcium and phosphorous. Osteoporosis is a condition characterized by weak and brittle bones. Calcium and phosphorous are essential minerals for bone health and strength. Calcium is a major component of bone tissue, while phosphorous plays a key role in bone mineralization. A deficiency in either of these electrolytes can lead to decreased bone density and increased risk of fractures. Sodium, potassium, and other electrolytes do not directly contribute to bone health in the same way that calcium and phosphorous do. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not involve the electrolytes crucial for bone health.

Question 4 of 5

Nurse Michelle calculates the IV flow rate for a postoperative client. The client receives 3,000 ml of Ringer's lactate solution IV to run over 24 hours. The IV infusion set has a drop factor of 10 drops per milliliter. The nurse should regulate the client's IV to deliver how many drops per minute?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the IV flow rate in drops per minute, we use the formula: (Drop factor x Volume to be infused in ml) / Time in minutes Given drop factor of 10, 3,000 ml to be infused over 24 hours (1,440 minutes), we get: (10 drops/ml x 3,000 ml) / 1,440 minutes = 21 drops/minute (Answer B). Choice A (18) is incorrect as it does not consider the correct drop factor and volume. Choice C (35) and D (40) are incorrect as they result from incorrect calculations.

Question 5 of 5

Mario comes to the clinic complaining of fever, drenching night sweats, and unexplained weight loss over the past 3 months. Physical examination reveals a single enlarged supraclavicular lymph node. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The most probable diagnosis for Mario is Hodgkin's disease. This is supported by his symptoms of fever, night sweats, weight loss, and an enlarged supraclavicular lymph node, which are classic signs of Hodgkin's lymphoma. The presence of a single enlarged supraclavicular lymph node is particularly concerning for malignancy. Influenza (choice A) typically presents with respiratory symptoms, not persistent lymphadenopathy. Sickle cell anemia (choice B) is a genetic disorder affecting red blood cells, not associated with the symptoms described. Leukemia (choice C) may present with similar symptoms but typically involves multiple lymph nodes, not a single enlarged node. Therefore, the correct answer is D, Hodgkin's disease.

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