ATI RN
Psychiatric Emergencies Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 36 year old woman has left-sided chest pain on inspiration whilst on the acute medical ward. Which is the most appropriate investigation at this stage?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D) Induced sputum microscopy. In a patient presenting with left-sided chest pain on inspiration, particularly in an acute medical setting, the most likely concern is a respiratory issue such as pneumonia. Induced sputum microscopy can help identify the presence of pathogens in the lower respiratory tract, aiding in the diagnosis of pneumonia. Option A) Blood cultures may be useful in cases of suspected sepsis or systemic infection, but in this scenario, where the primary symptom is chest pain on inspiration, it is not the most appropriate initial investigation. Option B) Bronchoscopy is an invasive procedure that is typically reserved for cases where there is a specific indication to visualize the airways or obtain samples directly from the lungs. It is not the first-line investigation for a patient with chest pain on inspiration. Option C) CT scan of the chest can provide detailed imaging of the chest structures but is not the initial investigation of choice when pneumonia is suspected. It may be considered if the diagnosis remains unclear after initial evaluations. In an educational context, understanding the rationale behind selecting the most appropriate investigation based on presenting symptoms is crucial for healthcare providers. It helps in developing clinical reasoning skills and ensures efficient and effective patient care by guiding the selection of diagnostic tests that are most likely to yield relevant information for the presenting clinical scenario.
Question 2 of 5
A 10 month old boy has vomiting and fever for 3 days and is seen in the Emergency Department. Which is the correct fluid bolus to give?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the context of a 10-month-old boy presenting with vomiting and fever for 3 days in the Emergency Department, the correct fluid bolus to give is option A) 0.9% sodium chloride. 1. **Correct Answer Rationale (Option A)**: - 0.9% sodium chloride, also known as normal saline, is the most appropriate choice for fluid resuscitation in this scenario. It is isotonic, meaning it has a similar concentration of salt and water as the body's cells, making it compatible with the body's fluid balance. In cases of dehydration due to vomiting and fever, isotonic fluids help restore electrolyte balance and maintain vascular volume, which is crucial in pediatric emergencies. 2. **Why Others Are Wrong**: - Option B) 0.18% sodium chloride and option C) 0.45% sodium chloride are hypotonic solutions, which may lead to cellular swelling and are not the first choice for fluid resuscitation in cases of dehydration. - Option D) 10% glucose is a hypertonic solution and is not suitable for initial fluid resuscitation in a dehydrated child. Glucose solutions are primarily used for specific indications like hypoglycemia and not for general rehydration purposes. 3. **Educational Context**: - Understanding the appropriate choice of fluid bolus in pediatric emergencies is crucial for healthcare providers, especially in the Emergency Department setting. The rationale behind selecting a specific fluid is based on the patient's age, clinical presentation, and the goal of fluid resuscitation. In pediatric cases, it is essential to consider isotonic fluids like 0.9% sodium chloride to prevent complications associated with incorrect fluid choices. In conclusion, selecting the correct fluid bolus, such as 0.9% sodium chloride, in pediatric emergencies is vital to ensure effective fluid resuscitation and prevent potential adverse effects. This educational rationale highlights the importance of understanding the rationale behind fluid choices in clinical practice, especially in scenarios involving pediatric patients with dehydration and fever.
Question 3 of 5
A 73 year old woman has blood taken for her INR and is seen in the GP Surgery. She is taking clarithromycin. Which medication is most likely to have interacted with warfarin?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C) Carbamazepine. Warfarin is a commonly used anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Carbamazepine is known to interact with warfarin by increasing its metabolism, leading to decreased warfarin levels in the blood and potentially reducing its anticoagulant effect. This can result in an increased risk of blood clot formation and thrombotic events. A) Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker commonly used to treat hypertension and angina. It does not have a significant interaction with warfarin. B) Atorvastatin is a statin medication used to lower cholesterol levels. It does not have a significant interaction with warfarin. D) Risedronate sodium is a bisphosphonate medication used to treat osteoporosis. It does not have a significant interaction with warfarin. Educational Context: Understanding drug interactions is crucial in the management of patients, especially those on multiple medications. Healthcare providers need to be aware of potential interactions to prevent adverse effects and ensure the efficacy of treatment. In the case of warfarin, monitoring INR levels regularly and adjusting doses based on interactions can prevent complications such as bleeding or thrombosis. This knowledge is essential in the field of psychiatry emergencies where patients may have complex medication regimens and comorbidities.
Question 4 of 5
A 44 year old woman has dry, itchy eyes for 6 months and a dry mouth. Which is the most appropriate treatment for her dry eyes?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate treatment for the 44-year-old woman with dry, itchy eyes and dry mouth for 6 months would be option B) Hypromellose. Hypromellose is a lubricating eye drop that helps to relieve dryness and discomfort in the eyes by providing artificial tears. In this case, the patient's symptoms of dry, itchy eyes indicate a condition known as dry eye syndrome, where the eyes do not produce enough tears or the tears evaporate too quickly. Hypromellose helps to lubricate the eyes and alleviate these symptoms. The other options listed are not appropriate for treating dry eyes in this context: A) Cyclopentolate: This is a mydriatic agent used to dilate the pupil and temporarily paralyze the focusing muscle of the eye. It is not indicated for treating dry eyes. C) Prednisolone: This is a corticosteroid medication that is used to reduce inflammation in the eyes. It is not typically used as a first-line treatment for dry eyes. D) Timolol: This is a beta-blocker medication used to lower intraocular pressure in conditions like glaucoma. It is not indicated for treating dry eyes. Educationally, understanding the appropriate treatment for dry eyes is important in the context of psychiatric emergencies as physical health issues can often manifest as psychological symptoms. Being able to identify and address physical health concerns, such as dry eyes, can contribute to a comprehensive approach to patient care.
Question 5 of 5
A 72 year old man has worsening breathlessness and ankle swelling for 2 months. Which is the most appropriate monitoring test after starting ramipril?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate monitoring test after starting ramipril for a 72-year-old man with worsening breathlessness and ankle swelling is option D) Renal function. Ramipril is an ACE inhibitor commonly used to treat hypertension and heart failure. It can cause renal impairment, especially in elderly patients or those with pre-existing kidney issues. Monitoring renal function is crucial after starting ramipril because ACE inhibitors can lead to a decline in kidney function due to their effect on renal blood flow. Monitoring renal function through tests like serum creatinine and estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) helps in early detection of any decline in kidney function, allowing for timely intervention to prevent further damage. Option A) Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) is a marker for heart failure and would be useful in assessing the severity of heart failure symptoms, but it is not the most appropriate monitoring test after starting ramipril. Option B) Creatine kinase is an enzyme found in muscles and is typically used to diagnose muscle damage, such as in cases of heart attack or muscular disorders. It is not directly related to monitoring renal function in patients on ACE inhibitors. Option C) Full blood count (FBC) is a broad test that looks at different components of blood like red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. While FBC is valuable in assessing overall health, it is not specific to monitoring renal function in this context. In an educational context, understanding the rationale behind monitoring specific parameters when initiating certain medications is essential for healthcare providers to ensure patient safety and optimize treatment outcomes. It reinforces the importance of individualizing patient care based on factors like age, comorbidities, and medication side effects. This case highlights the significance of regular monitoring to detect and manage potential medication-related complications proactively.