A 36-year-old woman grocery store manager with a fair complexion and blue eyes presents to her primary care physician for a routine exam. She mentions a friend of hers who is taking bimatoprost to increase the length and amount of her eyelashes and asks if you would recommend it for her. Her past medical history is significant for migraine headaches. Which of the following is a side effect you should warn her about?

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Pharmacology ATI Proctored Exam 2024 Questions

Question 1 of 5

A 36-year-old woman grocery store manager with a fair complexion and blue eyes presents to her primary care physician for a routine exam. She mentions a friend of hers who is taking bimatoprost to increase the length and amount of her eyelashes and asks if you would recommend it for her. Her past medical history is significant for migraine headaches. Which of the following is a side effect you should warn her about?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Bimatoprost for eyelashes risks permanent iris darkening , increasing melanin, especially in light eyes. Glaucoma is its therapeutic use, not a side effect here. Stevens-Johnson , weight gain , and migraines (E) aren't linked. Darkening is a key cosmetic concern.

Question 2 of 5

Two days after admission, the nurse is reviewing laboratory results of the patient. Which is the most common electrolyte finding resulting from the administration of furosemide (Lasix)?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The most common electrolyte finding resulting from the administration of furosemide (Lasix) is hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by blocking the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the ascending loop of Henle in the kidneys. This results in increased excretion of water and electrolytes, including potassium. Hypokalemia can lead to various complications such as cardiac arrhythmias, muscle weakness, and fatigue. Therefore, patients receiving furosemide should be closely monitored for potassium levels, and supplementation may be necessary to prevent and treat hypokalemia.

Question 3 of 5

A patient who has recently started therapy on a statin drug asks the nurse how long it will take until he sees an effect on his serum cholesterol. Which statement would be the nurse™s best response?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The nurse's best response would be, "It takes 6 to 8 weeks to see a change in cholesterol levels." Statin drugs typically take around 6 to 8 weeks before a noticeable effect on serum cholesterol levels is seen. This timeframe allows the medication to fully take effect and lower the cholesterol levels in the blood. Patients should continue with the prescribed treatment regimen and have their cholesterol levels monitored regularly to assess the effectiveness of the medication.

Question 4 of 5

The nurse administers an adrenergic blocking agent in order to prevent release of what neurotransmitter?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Adrenergic blocking agents prevent norepinephrine from being released from the adrenal medulla or from the nerve terminal from activating the receptor, which blocks sympathetic nervous system effects. Epinephrine, serotonin, and GABA are not associated with this process. Norepinephrine is the primary neurotransmitter targeted by these agents, as it plays a key role in the sympathetic nervous system's fight-or-flight response.

Question 5 of 5

A 35-year-old African American male in the military is hospitalized with an MRSA skin infection. The patient starts treatment with an antibiotic and becomes anemic and jaundiced. On peripheral blood smear, Heinz bodies are seen within red blood cells. What is the mechanism of action of the antibiotic given to this patient?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: MRSA treatment causing anemia, jaundice, and Heinz bodies suggests dapsone (sulfa drug), which inhibits folic acid metabolism . Oxidative stress from dapsone in G6PD-deficient patients (common in African Americans) leads to hemolysis. Options and are macrolide and tetracycline mechanisms. Option is penicillin's action. RNA polymerase inhibition (E) is rifampin's. Dapsone's sulfa action fits the clinical picture, with hemolysis as a side effect, not its primary MRSA mechanism, but the question's focus on outcome aligns with folate pathway disruption.

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