A 35-year-old woman complains of itching in the vulval area. Hanging-drop examination of the urine reveals trichomonas. Which of the following is the preferred treatment for the trichomoniasis?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Metronidazole is the preferred treatment for trichomoniasis.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Dalteparin (a low-molecular-weight heparin) has greater bioavailability, less thrombocytopenia risk, and a longer half-life than unfractionated heparin, but greater efficacy is not a consistent advantage, as it depends on the condition treated.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Rivaroxaban is a direct factor Xa inhibitor, not indirect (unlike fondaparinux, which requires antithrombin). Dabigatran directly inhibits thrombin, fondaparinux is correct, and warfarin inhibits vitamin K-dependent factor synthesis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rivaroxaban and dabigatran have rapid onset/offset, no INR monitoring, and fewer CYP450 interactions, but both require dose adjustments in renal failure due to renal clearance, unlike warfarin.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Argatroban is IV, used in HIT, and not reversed by protamine, but it’s monitored by aPTT, not INR (which is for warfarin).