A 35-year-old patient with a severe respiratory infection had sputum that showed Gram-negative, comma-shaped bacteria. What is the likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Campylobacter jejuni. This bacterium is Gram-negative and comma-shaped, commonly causing respiratory infections. Vibrio cholerae (A) causes cholera, not respiratory infections. Shigella dysenteriae (B) causes dysentery, not respiratory infections. Helicobacter pylori (D) is associated with gastric ulcers, not respiratory infections. Therefore, Campylobacter jejuni is the most likely causative agent based on the given information.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Formation of CD4+ cells. In autoimmune reactions, CD4+ cells are actually involved in the immune response. Here's the rationale: 1. CD4+ cells are helper T cells that play a crucial role in activating other immune cells in autoimmune reactions. 2. Decreased functional activity of T-suppressors (Choice A) is typical in autoimmune reactions as it leads to unchecked immune responses. 3. Loss of tolerance for T-helpers and B-lymphocytes (Choice B) is common in autoimmune reactions, where the immune system mistakenly attacks self-cells. 4. Ag released by normally isolated tissues (Choice C) is a typical mechanism in autoimmune reactions where self-antigens trigger immune responses.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anthrax. The clinical presentation of painless necrotic ulcers with black eschar, along with the gram-positive spore-forming bacilli seen on Gram's staining, is classic for cutaneous anthrax. Anthrax is caused by Bacillus anthracis, which produces spores and can lead to skin lesions in individuals working with animals or animal products. Choice B, Chickenpox, typically presents with vesicular rash all over the body. Choice C, Syphilis, is caused by Treponema pallidum and does not present with the characteristic eschar seen in the patient. Choice D, Tularemia, caused by Francisella tularensis, presents with ulceroglandular lesions but lacks the black eschar characteristic of anthrax.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because F pili are proteins on the F+ donor cell that are attached to specific receptors on the recipient cell's cell wall. This is essential for the transfer of genetic material during conjugation. Choice A is incorrect because F pili are not made up of nucleotides, but rather proteins. Choice B is incorrect because F pili are not transferred to the recipient cell itself, but they facilitate the transfer of genetic material. Choice D is incorrect because F pili are not part of the recipient cell, but rather part of the donor cell for attachment to the recipient cell.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: BK virus. BK virus is a common cause of hemorrhagic cystitis, especially in immunocompromised individuals. It infects the urinary tract, leading to inflammation and bleeding in the bladder. Enteroviruses, Flaviviruses, and Coronaviruses do not typically cause hemorrhagic cystitis. Enteroviruses usually cause respiratory and gastrointestinal infections, Flaviviruses are commonly associated with diseases like dengue fever and Zika virus, and Coronaviruses are known for causing respiratory illnesses such as COVID-19. Hence, the correct answer is A as it is the only virus among the options known to cause hemorrhagic cystitis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tubular filtration. The kidney does not perform tubular filtration as a method for urine formation and drug clearance. The process of urine formation involves filtration, secretion, and reabsorption. Filtration occurs at the glomerulus, where blood is filtered to form the initial filtrate. Tubular secretion involves the active transport of substances from the blood into the renal tubules to be eliminated in urine. Tubular reabsorption is the process of reclaiming useful substances from the filtrate back into the blood. Therefore, tubular filtration is not a valid process in urine formation and drug clearance, making it the correct answer. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are essential processes in urine formation and drug clearance.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Rationale: 1. The grain-like sediment indicates a precipitation reaction. 2. Precipitins are antibodies that cause precipitation reactions. 3. In serological diagnostics, precipitation reactions are used to detect specific antibodies. 4. Therefore, the reaction revealed in this scenario is due to the presence of precipitins. Summary: A: Bacteriolysins - These antibodies cause bacterial lysis, not precipitation. C: Antitoxins - These antibodies neutralize toxins, not involved in precipitation reactions. D: Opsonins - These antibodies enhance phagocytosis, not related to precipitation reactions.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: The patient's symptoms align with tetanus infection, such as muscle spasms and fever. Step 2: Tetanus is caused by Clostridium tetani bacteria found in soil. Step 3: The wound from tilling soil provides an entry point for the bacteria. Step 4: Delayed seeking medical attention increases the risk of tetanus development. Step 5: Tetanus toxin affects the nervous system, leading to muscle stiffness and spasms. Summary: Choice A is correct due to symptom alignment, bacterial source, wound type, delayed treatment, and specific neurological effects. Choices B, C, and D lack these specific connections to the given scenario.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because there are two types of herpes simplex virus: HSV-1 and HSV-2. HSV-1 typically causes oral herpes, while HSV-2 usually causes genital herpes. Choice A is incorrect because there is more than one type. Choices C and D are also incorrect as there are only two types of herpes simplex virus known to infect humans.