A 35-year-old patient with a severe respiratory infection had sputum that showed Gram-negative, comma-shaped bacteria. What is the likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Campylobacter jejuni. This bacterium is Gram-negative and comma-shaped, commonly causing respiratory infections. Vibrio cholerae (A) causes cholera, not respiratory infections. Shigella dysenteriae (B) causes dysentery, not respiratory infections. Helicobacter pylori (D) is associated with gastric ulcers, not respiratory infections. Therefore, Campylobacter jejuni is the most likely causative agent based on the given information.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mefloquine. Mefloquine is a histoschizontocidal antimalarial drug commonly prescribed for prevention of malaria in travelers. It is effective against the liver stage of the malaria parasite, which is crucial for preventing the development of the disease. Chingamin (A) is not a commonly used antimalarial drug. Biseptol (C) is a combination antibiotic and is not effective against malaria parasites. Quinine (D) is primarily used for treating malaria, not preventing it, and it is not specifically histoschizontocidal.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because F pili are proteins on the F+ donor cell that are attached to specific receptors on the recipient cell's cell wall. This is essential for the transfer of genetic material during conjugation. Choice A is incorrect because F pili are not made up of nucleotides, but rather proteins. Choice B is incorrect because F pili are not transferred to the recipient cell itself, but they facilitate the transfer of genetic material. Choice D is incorrect because F pili are not part of the recipient cell, but rather part of the donor cell for attachment to the recipient cell.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Disinfection is the process of destroying the vegetative forms of microorganisms, but their spores may survive. This is why choice C is correct. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Disinfection does not necessarily target spore forms exclusively. B: While disinfection targets vegetative forms, it does not always eliminate spore forms. D: Disinfection is not primarily used for determining the effect of physical agents on microorganisms.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium perfringens. This is because Clostridium perfringens is a Gram-positive rod bacterium that forms terminal spores. It is commonly associated with deep tissue infections and can cause gas gangrene. Bacillus anthracis (B) causes anthrax and does not typically form spores at the terminal end. Clostridium tetani (C) causes tetanus and Bacillus cereus (D) is more commonly associated with food poisoning. In this case, the presence of terminal spores along with the clinical presentation of a deep tissue infection points towards Clostridium perfringens as the most likely causative agent.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Gram-negative rods suggest Enterobacteriaceae family. 2. Lactose fermenters narrow down to E. coli. 3. Green colonies on MacConkey agar indicate acid production. 4. E. coli is a common cause of pneumonia. Therefore, the most likely causative agent is Escherichia coli. Other choices are incorrect as Klebsiella is non-lactose fermenter, Pseudomonas is oxidase-positive, and Proteus is non-lactose fermenter.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Initial diagnosis of influenza suggests a viral illness. Step 2: Presence of maculopapular petechial rash and high fever indicates a systemic infection. Step 3: Symptoms like euphoria, hyperemia, tachycardia, splenomegaly, and excitement are characteristic of epidemic typhus. Step 4: Face hyperemia, sclera reddening, and tongue tremor are specific to epidemic typhus. Step 5: Epidemic typhus is transmitted by body lice, which fits the scenario of a patient without permanent residence. Summary: - Delirium alcoholicum is unlikely due to the specific symptoms and lack of history of alcohol abuse. - Leptospirosis typically presents with jaundice and renal symptoms, not seen in this case. - Measles rash is different from the maculopapular petechial rash described.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Vaginitis is often caused by an imbalance in vaginal flora. Antibiotics can disrupt the natural balance, leading to overgrowth of harmful bacteria or yeast. Pregnancy alters hormone levels, making the vagina more susceptible to infection. Menopause decreases estrogen levels, thinning the vaginal walls and reducing beneficial bacteria. A: Urinary blockage does not directly relate to vaginitis. Drug use and stress may weaken the immune system but are not direct causes of vaginitis. C: Puberty, HPV exposure, and smoking/tobacco use do not directly increase the chances of vaginitis. HPV is a viral infection, not a direct cause of vaginitis. D: While menopause can increase the risk of vaginitis due to hormonal changes, stress and steroid use are not primary factors in developing vaginitis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: BK virus. BK virus is a common cause of hemorrhagic cystitis, especially in immunocompromised individuals. It infects the urinary tract, leading to inflammation and bleeding in the bladder. Enteroviruses, Flaviviruses, and Coronaviruses do not typically cause hemorrhagic cystitis. Enteroviruses usually cause respiratory and gastrointestinal infections, Flaviviruses are commonly associated with diseases like dengue fever and Zika virus, and Coronaviruses are known for causing respiratory illnesses such as COVID-19. Hence, the correct answer is A as it is the only virus among the options known to cause hemorrhagic cystitis.