A 35-year-old patient has been admitted to a hospital for pain in the left sternoclavicular and knee joints, lumbar area. The disease has an acute character and is accompanied by fever up to 38oC. Objectively: the left sternoclavicular and knee joints are swollen and painful. In blood: WBCs - 9, 5x109/l, ESR - 40 mm/h, CRP - 1,5 millimole/l, fibrinogen - 4,8 g/l, uric acid - 0,28 millimole/l. Examination of the urethra scrapings reveals chlamydia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

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Microbiology Chapter 11 Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

A 35-year-old patient has been admitted to a hospital for pain in the left sternoclavicular and knee joints, lumbar area. The disease has an acute character and is accompanied by fever up to 38oC. Objectively: the left sternoclavicular and knee joints are swollen and painful. In blood: WBCs - 9, 5x109/l, ESR - 40 mm/h, CRP - 1,5 millimole/l, fibrinogen - 4,8 g/l, uric acid - 0,28 millimole/l. Examination of the urethra scrapings reveals chlamydia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The most likely diagnosis is Reiter's syndrome. This is suggested by the presence of joint pain, fever, elevated ESR and CRP levels, and chlamydia infection. Reiter's syndrome is a reactive arthritis triggered by an infection elsewhere in the body, such as chlamydia. The patient's symptoms of joint pain and swelling, along with the positive chlamydia test, support this diagnosis. Rheumatic arthritis (Choice B) is not associated with chlamydia infection, making it less likely. Gout (Choice C) typically presents with elevated uric acid levels, which are normal in this case. Bechterew's disease (Choice D) primarily affects the spine and sacroiliac joints, not the sternoclavicular and knee joints as seen in this patient.

Question 2 of 9

A bacteriological analysis revealed spore-forming, Gram-positive rods in a wound smear. The bacteria were motile and produced gas in nutrient broth. What is the causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Spore-forming, Gram-positive rods: Characteristics shared by Clostridium and Bacillus. 2. Motile and gas production in nutrient broth: Clostridium perfringens is motile and produces gas, distinguishing it from Bacillus species. 3. Clostridium perfringens causes gas gangrene, correlating with gas production. 4. Bacillus anthracis causes anthrax, not related to wound infections. 5. Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, not associated with gas production. 6. Bacillus cereus causes food poisoning, not commonly associated with wound infections. Summary: - A is correct (Clostridium perfringens) due to motility, gas production, and wound infection correlation. - B (Bacillus anthracis) causes anthrax, not wound infections. - C (Clostridium tetani) causes tetanus, not gas production. - D (B

Question 3 of 9

Which bacteria are associated with the disease tuberculosis?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mycobacterium tuberculosis. This bacterium is specifically associated with causing tuberculosis. Mycobacterium leprae (choice A) is associated with leprosy, not tuberculosis. Streptococcus pneumoniae (choice C) is associated with pneumonia, not tuberculosis. Escherichia coli (choice D) is a common bacterium found in the intestines and is not associated with tuberculosis. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the only bacterium directly linked to the disease, making it the correct choice.

Question 4 of 9

Cytoplasmic membrane of the prokaryotes consists of:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. The cytoplasmic membrane of prokaryotes consists of phospholipids which form a lipid bilayer, providing structure and selective permeability. Proteins are embedded in this membrane, serving various functions like transport and signaling. Carbohydrates may also be present on the surface for cell recognition. Therefore, all three components (phospholipids, proteins, and carbohydrates) are essential parts of the prokaryotic cytoplasmic membrane. Option A, B, and C individually do not fully encapsulate the complexity and composition of the prokaryotic cytoplasmic membrane.

Question 5 of 9

A wound infection culture revealed Gram-positive cocci in clusters. The bacteria were catalase-positive and coagulase-positive. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus aureus. This bacterium is characterized by Gram-positive cocci in clusters, catalase-positive, and coagulase-positive. Staphylococcus aureus is a common pathogen causing wound infections due to its ability to produce toxins and enzymes. Staphylococcus epidermidis (B) is catalase-positive but coagulase-negative, making it less likely to cause infections. Streptococcus pyogenes (C) is catalase-negative and typically causes streptococcal infections, not wound infections. Enterococcus faecalis (D) is catalase-negative and typically associated with urinary tract infections. Thus, Staphylococcus aureus is the most likely causative agent based on the given characteristics.

Question 6 of 9

There is/are __________ level(s) of biosafety depending on the organisms handled.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D (4) because biosafety levels range from 1 to 4, each corresponding to the level of containment required when handling different types of organisms. BSL-1 is for low-risk agents, while BSL-4 is for dangerous pathogens. Choice A (1) is incorrect as there are multiple levels, not just one. Choice B (2) and C (3) are incorrect as they do not account for all the levels of biosafety required for handling various organisms. Therefore, D is the correct answer as it encompasses the full range of biosafety levels.

Question 7 of 9

Specify the microbiological characteristic of the air:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Contaminated. The air is never completely free of microorganisms, so it is considered contaminated. Microorganisms are ubiquitous in the environment. Permissible limits (B) imply a specific standard, which is not relevant to the general microbiological characteristic of air. Almost pure (C) and pure (D) are not accurate as air always contains some level of microorganisms.

Question 8 of 9

What type of immune reaction is most common in identification of vibrio cholerae

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Agglutination. Agglutination is commonly used to identify Vibrio cholerae by clumping together the bacteria with specific antibodies. This reaction occurs when antibodies bind to antigens on the bacterial surface, leading to visible clumps. In contrast, Precipitation, Western blot, and ELISA are not typically used to identify Vibrio cholerae. Precipitation involves antigen-antibody complexes becoming insoluble, Western blot is used for protein detection, and ELISA is commonly used for detecting specific antigens or antibodies in a sample. Agglutination is the most appropriate choice for identifying Vibrio cholerae due to its specific interaction with the bacteria's surface antigens.

Question 9 of 9

A man is ill with a protozoan disease characterized by cerebral affection and loss of sight. Blood analysis revealed halfmoon-shaped unicellular organisms with pointed ends. This disease is caused by:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Toxoplasma. Toxoplasma gondii causes Toxoplasmosis, a protozoan disease that can affect the brain and lead to vision loss. The halfmoon-shaped unicellular organisms with pointed ends described in the blood analysis are characteristic of Toxoplasma parasites. Toxoplasma infection commonly occurs through ingestion of contaminated food or water, or contact with infected cat feces. Leishmania causes Leishmaniasis, Lamblia causes Giardiasis, Amoeba causes Amebiasis, and Trichomonad causes Trichomoniasis, none of which match the symptoms and blood analysis findings described in the question.

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