A 35-year-old mother of three young children has been diagnosed with stage II breast cancer. After discussing treatment options with her physician, the woman goes home to talk to her husband, later calling the nurse for clarification of some points. The patient tells the nurse that the physician has recommended breast conservation surgery followed by radiation. The patients husband has done some online research and is asking why his wife does not have a modified radical mastectomy to be sure all the cancer is gone. What would be the nurses best response?

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Question 1 of 5

A 35-year-old mother of three young children has been diagnosed with stage II breast cancer. After discussing treatment options with her physician, the woman goes home to talk to her husband, later calling the nurse for clarification of some points. The patient tells the nurse that the physician has recommended breast conservation surgery followed by radiation. The patients husband has done some online research and is asking why his wife does not have a modified radical mastectomy to be sure all the cancer is gone. What would be the nurses best response?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: According to current guidelines, breast conservation combined with radiation is as effective as a modified radical mastectomy. 1. Breast conservation surgery followed by radiation is a standard treatment option for early-stage breast cancer. 2. Studies have shown that breast conservation surgery combined with radiation therapy is equally effective in terms of long-term survival rates compared to mastectomy. 3. Current guidelines recommend considering breast conservation surgery as a viable option for patients with early-stage breast cancer. 4. Modified radical mastectomy is not necessarily needed to ensure complete removal of cancer, as breast conservation surgery followed by radiation can achieve the same goal. 5. Therefore, the nurse should reassure the patient's husband that the recommended treatment plan is based on current guidelines and is as effective as a modified radical mastectomy.

Question 2 of 5

A public health nurse is teaching a health class for the male students at the local high school. The nurse is teaching the boys to perform monthly testicular self-examinations. What point would be appropriate to emphasize?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Testicular cancer is a highly curable type of cancer. This is the most appropriate point to emphasize because early detection through regular self-examinations can lead to early treatment and a high survival rate. Testicular cancer has a very high cure rate, especially when detected and treated early. Emphasizing this point encourages boys to perform monthly self-exams, leading to early detection and better outcomes. Explanation of other choices: B: Testicular cancer is very difficult to diagnose - This is incorrect because testicular cancer is actually one of the more easily detectable cancers through self-examinations. C: Testicular cancer is the number one cause of cancer deaths in males - This is incorrect as testicular cancer is not the leading cause of cancer deaths in males. D: Testicular cancer is more common in older men - This is incorrect as testicular cancer is more common in younger men, typically between the ages of 15 and 44.

Question 3 of 5

A nurse is providing an educational event to a local mens group about prostate cancer. The nurse should cite an increased risk of prostate cancer in what ethnic group?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: African Americans. African American men have the highest incidence rate of prostate cancer among all ethnic groups. This is due to genetic and environmental factors, as well as disparities in access to healthcare. Native Americans (A), Caucasian Americans (B), and Asian Americans (D) have lower rates of prostate cancer compared to African Americans. It is important to educate the local men's group about this increased risk in African Americans to promote awareness and early detection.

Question 4 of 5

A nurse is caring for a 33-year-old male who has come to the clinic for a physical examination. He states that he has not had a routine physical in 5 years. During the examination, the physician finds that digital rectal examination (DRE) reveals stoney hardening in the posterior lobe of the prostate gland that is not mobile. The nurse recognizes that the observation typically indicates what?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Evidence of a more advanced lesion. A stoney hardening in the posterior lobe of the prostate gland that is not mobile is indicative of a more advanced lesion, such as prostate cancer. This finding suggests that the lesion has progressed beyond the early stages. In early prostate cancer, the prostate gland may feel firm but not stoney hard, and the lesion is usually mobile. Metastatic disease would involve spread of the cancer to other parts of the body, which is not evident from the DRE alone. A normal finding would not present as stoney hardening and lack of mobility in the prostate gland during a DRE.

Question 5 of 5

A 57-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining that when he has an erection his penis curves and becomes painful. The patients diagnosis is identified as severe Peyronies disease. The nurse should be aware of what likely treatment modality?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Surgery. Surgery is the most effective treatment modality for severe Peyronie's disease as it can correct the penile curvature and alleviate pain. Physical therapy (A) may not be effective in severe cases. PDE-5 inhibitors (B) are used for erectile dysfunction but do not treat the underlying Peyronie's disease. Intracapsular hydrocortisone injections (C) may be used for less severe cases, but in severe cases, surgery is recommended for optimal outcomes.

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