ATI RN
Genitourinary System Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 35 year old man presents to the ER with severe headache. After lab workup, patient is diagnosed to have increased intracranial pressure. Which diuretic would work best to reduce this pressure?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mannitol. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that works by drawing fluid out of brain tissue and reducing intracranial pressure. It is commonly used in cases of increased intracranial pressure due to its ability to easily cross the blood-brain barrier and reduce cerebral edema. Hydrochlorothiazide (A) is a thiazide diuretic mainly used for hypertension and not effective for this condition. Acetazolamide (C) is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that can reduce CSF production but is not as effective as mannitol for rapid reduction of intracranial pressure. Furosemide (D) is a loop diuretic that primarily acts on the kidneys and is not as effective as mannitol for reducing intracranial pressure.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following diuretics than can cause gynecomastia, hirsutism and menstrual disturbances as adverse reactions?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that acts as an aldosterone antagonist. 2. Aldosterone antagonism can lead to anti-androgenic effects, causing gynecomastia and hirsutism in males and menstrual disturbances in females. 3. Hydrochlorothiazide (A) is a thiazide diuretic known for electrolyte imbalances, not these specific side effects. 4. Bumetanide (B) is a loop diuretic that primarily affects electrolytes, not causing hormonal side effects. 5. Acetazolamide (C) is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, usually associated with metabolic acidosis, not hormonal disturbances. Summary: Spironolactone (D) is the correct answer due to its aldosterone antagonist properties causing hormonal side effects. The other choices do not have the same mechanism of action and are not associated with gynecomastia,
Question 3 of 5
How is an intravenous pyelogram performed?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because an intravenous pyelogram (IVP) is performed by injecting a contrast dye into the vein. This dye travels through the bloodstream, highlighting the kidneys, ureters, and bladder on X-ray images. Palpating the suprapubic area (A) involves feeling for the bladder, but it is not part of an IVP procedure. Percussing the area over the bladder (B) involves tapping to assess for fluid or air, which is not relevant to an IVP. Using a stethoscope to listen for abnormal sounds (D) is not related to the process of an IVP.
Question 4 of 5
While managing a client after a medical or surgical procedure for bladder stones, when should the nurse notify the physician?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because assessing and recognizing abnormal findings is crucial in post-procedure care for bladder stones. This includes monitoring for signs of infection, urinary retention, bleeding, or other complications that may require immediate medical intervention. Notifying the physician promptly allows for timely treatment and prevents potential complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly related to the immediate post-procedure care for bladder stones and do not require immediate physician notification.
Question 5 of 5
A physician is caring for a patient with a urinary tract infection. The physician would expect the plan of care to include:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Antibiotics and phenazopyridine. Antibiotics are essential to treat the bacterial infection causing the UTI. Phenazopyridine can help relieve urinary discomfort. Erythropoietin and stent placement (B) are not indicated for UTI. Hormonal therapy and IV fluids (C) are not standard treatments for UTI. Hourly urine output measurements and antibiotics (D) are not typically necessary, as antibiotics alone are sufficient for treating UTIs.