ATI RN
Pharmacology ATI Proctored Exam 2024 Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 35-year-old African American male in the military is hospitalized with an MRSA skin infection. The patient starts treatment with an antibiotic and becomes anemic and jaundiced. On peripheral blood smear, Heinz bodies are seen within red blood cells. What is the mechanism of action of the antibiotic given to this patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: MRSA treatment causing anemia, jaundice, and Heinz bodies suggests dapsone (sulfa drug), which inhibits folic acid metabolism . Oxidative stress from dapsone in G6PD-deficient patients (common in African Americans) leads to hemolysis. Options and are macrolide and tetracycline mechanisms. Option is penicillin's action. RNA polymerase inhibition (E) is rifampin's. Dapsone's sulfa action fits the clinical picture, with hemolysis as a side effect, not its primary MRSA mechanism, but the question's focus on outcome aligns with folate pathway disruption.
Question 2 of 5
A 52-year-old man has had several focal complex partial seizures over the last year. Which one of the following therapies would be the most appropriate initial therapy for this patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Levetiracetam treats focal complex partial seizures by modulating synaptic vesicle protein SV2A, reducing excitability with broad efficacy, good tolerability, and minimal interactions, making it an appropriate initial therapy. Ethosuximide targets absence seizures, not focal. Diazepam manages acute seizures, not maintenance. Carbamazepine plus primidone is excessive; carbamazepine alone controls focal seizures via sodium channel blockade but has more interactions. Watchful waiting risks progression. Levetiracetam's profile, per guidelines, suits this patient as a first-line choice.
Question 3 of 5
The client has been prescribed the opioid combination drug Novahistine DM for control of cough. This drug contains codeine, phenylephrine, and chlorpheniramine. Which instructions should the nurse provide as part of medication education?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Novahistine DM combines codeine (antitussive), phenylephrine (decongestant), and chlorpheniramine (antihistamine), causing sedation and impaired judgment. 'Do not make important decisions or operate machinery' is critical, as codeine's CNS depression, amplified by chlorpheniramine, risks accidents (correct answers: 3, 4, 5). Water aids swallowing but isn't key. Bedside storage risks overuse. Adherence is vital but secondary to safety. Choice D prioritizes preventing harm.
Question 4 of 5
Centrally acting antitussives, such as opioids, are used to
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Opioid antitussives suppress severe coughs , not congestion , mucus , or mild coughs . C reflects their use, making it correct.
Question 5 of 5
A client with HIV is prescribed zidovudine (Retrovir). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Zidovudine, an antiretroviral, treats HIV but risks bone marrow suppression, causing anemia. Monitoring RBC count detects this, ensuring timely intervention (e.g., transfusion). Liver enzymes matter with other drugs. Potassium and glucose aren't primary concerns. RBC monitoring aligns with zidovudine's toxicity profile, critical in HIV where anemia impacts quality of life, making A the key value.