ATI RN
NCLEX questions on chemotherapy drugs Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 34-year-old man with a history of recurrent tuberculosis on a multidrug regimen, including isoniazid. He presents to his primary care physician complaining of paresthesias of his hands and feet. What is the most likely explanation for this finding?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Isoniazid causes peripheral neuritis (neuropathy) by depleting vitamin B6 (pyridoxine), leading to paresthesias; supplementation with B6 can prevent this.
Question 2 of 5
A 4-year-old boy is hospitalized on the pediatric service with cough, runny nose, and chest pressure. Concern for respiratory syncytial virus is brought up by the treating physician. Treatment with zanamivir is undertaken. Which of the following underlying conditions can worsen bronchospasm in this patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Zanamivir, an inhaled antiviral, can cause bronchospasm, particularly in patients with asthma, worsening respiratory symptoms in RSV infection.
Question 3 of 5
A 52-year-old female presents with facial wrinkling that has not been satisfactorily treated with creams. She requests information on botulinum toxin A at an acquaintance’s recommendation. Botulinum toxin’s mechanism of action is most similar to which other bacterial toxin?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Botulinum toxin and tetanospasmin (tetanus toxin) both inhibit neurotransmitter release by cleaving SNARE proteins, though botulinum acts at peripheral neurons and tetanus at central inhibitory neurons.
Question 4 of 5
A 45-year-old man with HIV disease and herpesvirus has begun on therapy with foscarnet. The medication is administered intravenously. If serum electrolytes are drawn on this patient after 1 week of therapy, which of the following laboratory values would be expected to be abnormal?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Foscarnet can cause hypocalcemia by chelating calcium ions, a common side effect, along with renal toxicity, in treating herpesviruses in HIV patients.
Question 5 of 5
A 43-year-old man with leukemia is hospitalized for treatment after his prior chemotherapeutic regimen failed to produce remission. Bone marrow biopsy is repeated and indicates the presence of hairy cell leukemia. Treatment with fludarabine has begun. This agent likely works in which of the following ways?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fludarabine is a purine analog that requires phosphorylation into its active triphosphate form, inhibiting DNA synthesis and repair, highly effective in hairy cell leukemia.