ATI RN
Pharmacology ATI Final Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 34-year-old man presents to the emergency department with fevers, chills, muscle aches, and headaches for the past 16 h. His son has been sick for the past week and unable to attend daycare. He did not receive the influenza vaccine this year. A nasal swab is performed and he is diagnosed with influenza. He is started on oseltamivir. What is the mechanism of action of oseltamivir?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 2 of 5
The patient receives imipramine (Tofranil) as treatment for depression. He is admitted to the emergency department following an intentional overdose of this medication. What will the priority assessment by the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Imipramine, a tricyclic antidepressant, is highly cardiotoxic in overdose, often causing fatal dysrhythmias due to sodium channel blockade, leading to widened QRS complexes and ventricular arrhythmias. The priority assessment must focus on cardiac status to detect life-threatening changes like tachycardia or arrhythmias, requiring immediate intervention such as sodium bicarbonate or cardioversion. Liver function and renal status may be affected long-term but aren't the acute priority in overdose. Neurological function , while impacted (e.g., seizures), is secondary to cardiac risks, as circulatory collapse poses the greatest immediate threat. The nurse's focus on cardiac monitoring aligns with toxicology protocols, ensuring rapid response to the most lethal complication, making choice A the critical assessment in this emergency scenario.
Question 3 of 5
The client receives nystatin (Nilstat) for a fungal infection in the mouth. The nurse plans to do medication education prior to discharge. What will the best plan by the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Nystatin treats oral thrush by direct mucosal contact, requiring the tablet to dissolve in the mouth for prolonged exposure before swallowing. This maximizes antifungal action against Candida. Using a straw might apply to suspensions but isn't standard for discoloration prevention, which isn't a primary issue. Crushing and mixing with juice reduces contact time, decreasing efficacy. Swallowing whole bypasses the infection site, rendering it ineffective. The nurse's best plan educates on dissolving the tablet, aligning with nystatin's topical mechanism, ensuring treatment success and preventing recurrence, making A the optimal instruction.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse administers furosemide (Lasix) to a client with edema. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, treats edema by increasing urine output but depletes potassium via renal excretion, risking hypokalemia. This can cause muscle weakness or arrhythmias, critical in edema patients often with cardiac issues. Monitoring potassium closely ensures timely correction, preventing life-threatening complications. Sodium may decrease but is less urgent unless extreme. Calcium loss occurs but is rarer and less impactful acutely. Glucose isn't directly affected by furosemide. Potassium's rapid depletion aligns with the drug's mechanism'blocking the Na-K-2Cl cotransporter'making it the priority lab value. Regular checks (e.g., serum levels) guide supplementation, ensuring safety during diuresis, thus B is the nurse's focus for effective monitoring and intervention.
Question 5 of 5
The following are subject to extensive presystemic (first-pass) metabolism:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.