ATI RN
Mastering Microbiology Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 34-year-old male visited Tajikistan. After return, he complains of fever up to 40oC which occurs every second day and is accompanied by chills, sweating. Hepatosplenomegaly is present. Blood test results: RBC- 3x1012/l, b- 80 g/l, WBC- 4x109/l, eosinophils - 1%, stab neutrophils - 5%, segmented neutrophils - 60%, lymphocytes - 24%, monocytes - 10%, ESR - 25 mm/h. What is the provisional diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Malaria. The patient's travel history to an endemic area like Tajikistan, along with symptoms of fever with chills, sweating, and hepatosplenomegaly, are classic for malaria. The blood test results show anemia (low RBC and hemoglobin levels), which can occur in malaria due to hemolysis. The presence of eosinophils and lymphocytes are not typical for malaria, but the overall clinical picture fits. Infectious mononucleosis (choice B) typically presents with sore throat, lymphadenopathy, and atypical lymphocytosis, which are not seen in this case. Sepsis (choice C) is characterized by systemic inflammatory response syndrome and organ dysfunction due to infection, which does not align with the symptoms and findings in the case. Typhoid fever (choice D) usually presents with gradual onset of sustained fever, abdominal pain, headache, and constipation, which are not present in this patient
Question 2 of 5
A patient of surgical department complains about pain in the small of her back and in the lower part of her belly; painful and frequent urination. Bacteriological examination of urine revealed gram-negative oxidase-positive rod-like bacteria forming greenish mucoid colonies with specific smell. What causative agent can it be?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Proteus mirabilis. This bacterium is known to cause urinary tract infections (UTIs) and matches the description given in the question. Proteus mirabilis is a gram-negative rod-like bacterium that forms greenish mucoid colonies with a specific smell due to its production of urease enzyme. This enzyme leads to the formation of struvite crystals, which can cause painful and frequent urination. Pseudomonas aeruginosa (A) is not typically associated with UTIs. E.coli (C) is the most common cause of UTIs but does not match the specific description provided. Str.pyogenes (D) is a gram-positive bacterium and is not typically associated with UTIs.
Question 3 of 5
A 6-year-old child has duodenal ulcer. What antibacterial drug should be co-administered together with metronidazole and De-Nol in order to eradicate Helicobacter pylori infection?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Amoxicillin. Amoxicillin is commonly used in combination therapy with metronidazole and bismuth compounds like De-Nol to eradicate Helicobacter pylori infection in children. Amoxicillin targets the bacterial cell wall synthesis, working synergistically with metronidazole to effectively eradicate the infection. Tetracycline (choice B) is not recommended in children under 8 years old due to potential tooth discoloration. Oleandomycin (choice C) is not commonly used for H. pylori infection. Biseptol (choice D) is a combination of sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim, not typically used for H. pylori eradication.
Question 4 of 5
A female who had been continuously taking antibiotics for an intestinal infection developed a complication manifested by inflammation of the oral mucosa and white deposit. Bacteriological study of the deposit samples revealed yeast fungi Candida albicans. Which of the following medications is indicated for the treatment of this complication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (A: Fluconazole): Fluconazole is an antifungal medication used to treat yeast infections caused by Candida albicans. It targets the fungal cell membrane, disrupting its structure and function. This makes it an effective treatment for oral thrush, which is caused by Candida overgrowth in the oral mucosa. The continuous use of antibiotics can disrupt the normal balance of microorganisms in the body, leading to fungal overgrowth. Fluconazole specifically targets the yeast fungi without affecting bacteria, making it the appropriate choice for this complication. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Biseptol - Biseptol is an antibiotic that targets bacteria, not fungi like Candida albicans. C: Tetracycline - Tetracycline is also an antibiotic that targets bacteria, not fungi. D: Furazolidone - Furazolidone is an antibiotic primarily used for treating bacterial infections, not fungal infections like oral thrush caused by Candida
Question 5 of 5
What would be the conclusion?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice B being correct: 1. The conclusion should be based on evidence or observations. 2. "Doubtful" suggests uncertainty, indicating lack of definitive safety. 3. Choice A is too absolute without considering potential risks. 4. Choice C uses extreme language without proper evidence. 5. Choice D is overly definitive without considering varying levels of contamination. Therefore, choice B is the most reasonable conclusion.