ATI RN
Mastering Microbiology Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 34 year old male patient consulted a doctor about face carbuncle. Objectively: a loose, painless edema of hypodermic tissue; black crust in the center of carbuncle, vesicular rash around it. Microbiological examination revealed static streptobacilli capable of capsule building. What microorganisms are the causative agents of this disease?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Staphylococcus aureus. This bacterium is a common causative agent of skin infections like carbuncles. Staphylococcus aureus is known for its ability to produce pus-filled abscesses, which aligns with the symptoms described in the question. The presence of a vesicular rash around the carbuncle further supports this diagnosis, as Staphylococcus aureus can cause skin lesions. The other choices are not correct because: A: Bacillus anthracis causes anthrax, which presents with different symptoms such as fever, malaise, and respiratory symptoms. C: Bacillus subtilis is a harmless soil bacterium commonly used in research and not known to cause skin infections. D: Bacillus anthracoides is not a known pathogen and is not associated with human infections.
Question 2 of 5
When examining a patient presumptively diagnosed with food toxicoinfection, a doctor on duty has detected symptoms characteristic of botulism. The patient named the meals he ate the day before. What is the most probable cause of infection?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Homemade canned meat. Botulism is caused by the Clostridium botulinum bacteria, which thrives in low-oxygen environments like improperly canned food. Homemade canned meat poses a higher risk of contamination as it may not have been processed correctly, allowing the bacteria to grow and produce toxins. Custard pastry, sour cream, and strawberries are less likely to cause botulism as they are not typically associated with the bacteria unless improperly handled or stored. Homemade canned meat is the most probable cause based on the characteristic symptoms of botulism and the conditions that favor the growth of Clostridium botulinum in canned food.
Question 3 of 5
On the 5th day after a surgery for colon injury a patient complains of bursting pain in the postoperative wound, weakness, drowsiness, headache, fever up to 40oC. Objectively: the skin around the wound is swollen, there is gas crepitation. The wound discharges are scarce foul-smelling, of dark-gray color. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anaerobic clostridial wound infection. The symptoms and signs described (bursting pain, weakness, drowsiness, fever, swollen skin, gas crepitation, foul-smelling dark-gray discharge) are classic for gas gangrene, caused by Clostridium perfringens. Gas gangrene is an anaerobic infection that thrives in devitalized tissue, such as postoperative wounds. The gas crepitation is due to gas production by the bacteria. Abscess (B) typically presents with localized swelling and fluctuance, not gas crepitation. Postoperative wound infection (C) may present with redness, warmth, and increased wound discharge but not the specific features mentioned. Erysipelas (D) is a superficial bacterial skin infection, typically caused by Streptococcus pyogenes, presenting with well-defined raised borders and redness.
Question 4 of 5
A dentist examined a 5-year-old boy and found him to have a saddle nose, high-arched palate, natiform skull. Both front maxillary incisors are peg-shaped and have a crescent-shaped notch in the cutting edge. Lymph nodes are not changed. What is the provisional diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Late congenital syphilis. The symptoms described align with late congenital syphilis, which includes saddle nose, high-arched palate, natiform skull, peg-shaped incisors, and notched cutting edge. Lymph nodes not being affected is also consistent with late congenital syphilis. Early congenital syphilis (B) typically presents with more severe symptoms at birth or shortly after. Tertiary syphilis (C) usually occurs years after initial infection and presents with different symptoms. Fluorosis (D) is caused by excessive fluoride intake and does not match the symptoms described.
Question 5 of 5
A 40-year-old patient presents with abdominal pain, frequent loose stools with mucus and blood. Stool analysis revealed vegetative forms of some protozoa sized 30-40 microns, with short pseudopodia, containing large amounts of phagocytosed erythrocytes. What protozoan disease does the patient have?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Amebiasis. The patient's symptoms of abdominal pain, loose stools with mucus and blood, along with the presence of protozoa containing phagocytosed erythrocytes in stool analysis are indicative of Entamoeba histolytica infection. The size (30-40 microns) and pseudopodia characteristics match E. histolytica. Amebiasis commonly presents with dysentery, while Leishmaniasis (B) typically causes skin ulcers. Trichomoniasis (C) is a sexually transmitted infection, not associated with the described symptoms. Giardiasis (D) is characterized by foul-smelling diarrhea and steatorrhea, not bloody diarrhea as seen in this case.