A 34-year-old has a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes. The nurse will discuss the need to schedule a dilated eye exam

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Question 1 of 9

A 34-year-old has a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes. The nurse will discuss the need to schedule a dilated eye exam

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B (as soon as possible) because individuals with type 2 diabetes are at risk for diabetic retinopathy, a complication that can lead to vision loss. Early detection through a dilated eye exam allows for timely intervention to prevent or slow down progression. Choice A (every 2 years) may not be frequent enough for early detection. Choice C (when the patient is 39 years old) is not specific to the individual's diabetes diagnosis. Choice D (within the first year after diagnosis) is too delayed for optimal monitoring. Thus, scheduling a dilated eye exam as soon as possible is crucial for early detection and management of diabetic retinopathy.

Question 2 of 9

Patient with alcohol withdrawal is experiencing confusion, muscle weakness and tremors, which of the following can the nurse expect is a deficiency the patient probably has:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In alcohol withdrawal with confusion, weakness, and tremors, the nurse expects thiamin deficiency, not calcium, iron, or B12. Chronic alcohol use depletes thiamin (vitamin B1), risking Wernicke's encephalopathy neurological symptoms match this. Calcium might cause spasms, iron anemia, and B12 neuropathy, but thiamin fits withdrawal's acute presentation. Leadership anticipates this imagine a disoriented patient; thiamin IV prevents progression, safeguarding brain function. This reflects nursing's grasp of nutritional deficits, ensuring rapid, targeted care in addiction emergencies effectively.

Question 3 of 9

As part of your hospital's effort to achieve Magnet® status, you are asked to join a council that addresses staff retention. You note that staff often leave due to lack of recognition and limited input into scheduling. You suggest a program that includes staff in scheduling decisions and recognizes staff achievements monthly. Your suggestion is likely to:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Your program staff input on scheduling and monthly recognition targets retention killers, boosting job satisfaction by valuing nurses' voices and efforts, a Magnet® cornerstone. Research shows this cuts turnover, not raises it, and lifts morale without harming patients or teamwork care quality often rises. On the council, this dual fix addresses exit reasons directly, fostering a supportive culture, aligning with Magnet's aim to keep skilled staff engaged and fulfilled.

Question 4 of 9

What is the primary purpose of clinical pathways in healthcare?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Provide individualized care. Clinical pathways aim to offer a structured approach to patient care while allowing customization based on individual patient needs. By providing a standardized outline of care steps, healthcare providers can tailor treatment plans to meet each patient's unique circumstances. This promotes more personalized and effective care delivery. Incorrect choices: A: Reduce hospital readmissions - Clinical pathways may help in reducing readmissions, but this is not their primary purpose. B: Standardize care - While clinical pathways do standardize care to some extent, their main goal is to individualize care based on patient needs. D: Streamline care processes - While clinical pathways can streamline care processes, the primary focus is on providing individualized care rather than solely on process efficiency.

Question 5 of 9

A nurse in a community health clinic is planning an in-service staff training session on nationally notifiable infectious conditions. Which of the following conditions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Nationally notifiable infectious conditions are tracked by the CDC to monitor public health threats, and varicella (chickenpox) is among them due to its contagiousness and vaccine-preventable status. Including it in training ensures staff recognize its reportable nature, aiding outbreak control and surveillance. Strep throat, while bacterial and treatable, isn't nationally notifiable unless linked to severe sequelae like rheumatic fever, which isn't specified. Influenza is tracked via sentinel surveillance, not mandatory individual reporting, and the common cold lacks public health significance for notification. Varicella's inclusion educates staff on legal reporting duties, supports vaccination efforts, and protects vulnerable populations, aligning with community health priorities and regulatory requirements for infectious disease management.

Question 6 of 9

Which of the following is an example of a primary prevention strategy in public health?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vaccination programs. Primary prevention aims to prevent the onset of disease before it occurs. Vaccination programs are a classic example as they protect individuals from contracting infectious diseases, thus preventing the occurrence of the disease in the first place. Screening for diabetes (A) is a form of secondary prevention, aiming to detect the condition early to prevent complications. Emergency response planning (C) focuses on preparedness for disasters rather than preventing diseases. Chronic disease management (D) involves managing existing conditions rather than preventing their occurrence.

Question 7 of 9

What is the main purpose of the NCLEX examination?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The main purpose of the NCLEX examination is to ensure the safety of the public. The exam assesses if a candidate has the knowledge and skills necessary to provide safe and effective nursing care. It is designed to protect the public by ensuring that only competent individuals are granted nursing licensure. This is crucial in maintaining high standards of healthcare and safeguarding patients' well-being. Incorrect answers: A: Ensuring that individuals have passed nursing classes is not the main purpose of the NCLEX. Passing nursing classes is a prerequisite for taking the exam but not its primary goal. B: Providing assurance that nursing schools are part of the service agency is not the main purpose of the NCLEX. The exam focuses on individual competency rather than accrediting nursing schools. C: Enabling potential students to determine the best nursing schools is not the main purpose of the NCLEX. The exam does not rank or rate nursing schools; its primary aim is to evaluate individual readiness for nursing practice.

Question 8 of 9

Factors that may contribute to workplace violence in a health care setting include:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because continuous loud noises and poorly monitored entrances can create a stressful environment, leading to heightened emotions and potential triggers for violence. Loud noises can increase agitation, while poorly monitored entrances can allow unauthorized individuals to enter, posing a security risk. The other choices are incorrect because lack of armed security (A) is not a direct cause of workplace violence, poor staff interactions (C) may contribute to a negative work environment but not necessarily violence, and tense shoulders and clenched fists (D) are physical signs of stress but do not directly cause workplace violence.

Question 9 of 9

The overall goal of action in any achievement setting is assumed to be the desire to:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Goal is competence development, avoiding incompetence , not A, C, D. Nurse leaders like skill growth pursue this, contrasting with failure. In healthcare, it drives quality, aligning leadership with excellence.

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