A 34 year old client is diagnosed with AIDS. His pharmacologic management includes zidovudine (AZT). During a home visit, the client states, "I don't understand how this medication works. Will it stop the infection?" What is the nurse's best response?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The nurse's best response is, "The medication blocks reverse transcriptase, the enzyme required for HIV replication." This response provides the client with a clear and accurate explanation of how zidovudine (AZT) works. AZT is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI) that works by blocking the activity of reverse transcriptase, an enzyme needed for HIV replication. By inhibiting this enzyme, AZT helps to slow down the replication of the virus, reducing the viral load in the body and slowing the progression of the disease. It is important for the client to understand that while AZT can help manage HIV/AIDS, it is not a cure and will not completely eliminate the infection.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Administering metoclopramide (Reglan) and dexamethasone (Decadron) as prescribed should be the highest priority intervention for a client experiencing nausea and vomiting after cancer chemotherapy. Metoclopramide is a commonly used antiemetic medication that helps to reduce nausea and vomiting by enhancing gastric emptying and decreasing nausea. Dexamethasone, a corticosteroid, can also help alleviate inflammation that may contribute to the nausea and vomiting. By administering these medications as prescribed, the nurse can effectively address the client's symptoms and improve their comfort level. The other options, such as serving small portions bland food, encouraging rhythmic breathing exercises, and withholding fluids, are important interventions but should not take precedence over providing the prescribed antiemetic medications to manage the client's post-chemotherapy symptoms.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Papillary carcinoma is the most common form of thyroid cancer in adults, accounting for approximately 80% of all thyroid cancers. It typically affects individuals in their 30s and 40s and has an excellent prognosis with high survival rates, especially when detected early. Papillary carcinoma arises from the follicular cells of the thyroid gland and is known for its characteristic papillary growth pattern. It often presents as a painless thyroid nodule and may be associated with a history of radiation exposure. Treatment usually involves surgery to remove the thyroid gland (thyroidectomy) followed by radioactive iodine therapy and thyroid hormone replacement.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The assessment finding that suggests the client is experiencing an adverse effect of morphine (Duramorph) is a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min. Morphine is a potent opioid analgesic that can cause respiratory depression as a side effect. When the respiratory rate decreases significantly, it indicates the potential for compromised breathing, which could progress to respiratory failure. This is a serious adverse effect that requires immediate attention and evaluation by healthcare providers. The client receiving continuous infusion of morphine should be closely monitored for signs of respiratory depression to prevent life-threatening consequences.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy is a surgical procedure performed to remove benign or malignant tumors located in the pituitary gland. Pituitary carcinoma refers to a type of cancer that originates in the pituitary gland. Therefore, this surgery is indicated for treating pituitary carcinoma by removing the tumor from the pituitary gland. After the surgery, hormone replacement therapy may be necessary to replace the hormones that were previously produced by the removed adenohypophysis (anterior pituitary gland).